BPSC Question

BPSC (Pre) Solution 2008

1. Ranchi city is located in
Bihar
Madhya Pradesh
Orissa
Jharkhand

Ans. d

2. Coal account for ….. percent commercial energy requirement of India76
56
67
52

Ans. a

3. ….. carries 40 percent of road traffic of IndiaNational Highways
State roads
District roads
Village roads

Ans. a

4. The 47.78 percent irrigation potential of India is created through
Major Project
Minor project Major Project
Minor Projects
Medium Projects

Ans. c

5. India get maximum rainfall mainly from
North-East Monsoon
Retreating Monsoon
South-East Monsoon
Convectional rainfall

Ans.

6. The estimated coal reserves in Bihar is
1260 crore tones
303 crore tones
25310 crore tones
16 crore tonnes

Ans. d

7. The Railway zone head quarters Hajipur is located in
Chhattisgarh
Uttar Pradesh
Jharkhand
Bihar

Ans. d

8. The percentage of net cultivated area out of total area in Bihar is
60
40
80
70

Ans. a

9. Indian Development Forum (IDF) was earlier known as:
Aid India Consortium
Aid India Bank
World Bank
None of the above

Ans. a

10. It will be true to classify India as
A food-deficit economy
A labour-surplus economy
A trade surpluses economy
A capital surplus economy

Ans. b
11. Modvat is related to
Sales Tax
Wealth Tax
Income Tax
Excise-Duty

Ans. d

12. The eleventh plan’s objective isRemoval of property
Inclusive growth
Growth with social-justice
Development of minorities

Ans. b

13. Rainbow revolution is related with
Green-revolution
White-revolution
Blue-revolution
All of the above

Ans. d

14. The one rupee note bears the signature of the
Secretary, Ministry of Finance
Governor, RBI
Finance Minister
None of these

Ans. a

15. The period of plan-holiday in India was
1962-65
1966-69
1969-72
1972-75

Ans. b

16. The "Rolling Plan" concept in national planning was introduced by
Indira Gandhi
The National Front Government
The Janata Government
Rajiv Gandhi

Ans. c

17. Consider the following words:
Socialist
Democratic
Sovereign
Secular


Choose the response that gives the correct in the preamble
C, A, D and B
C, D, A and B
C, D, B and A
D, A, C and B

Ans. a

18. In which house is the presiding officer not a member of that house?
Lok-Sabha
Rajya-Sabha
Vidhan-Sabba
Vidhan-Parishad

Ans. b

19. By which constitutional amendment bill was the voting age reduced from 21 years to 18 years?
48th57th61st63nd
Ans. c

20. If the position of president and Vice-President are vacant, who officiates as the president of India?
The Prime Minister
The Chief Justice of India
The Speaker of Lok-Sabha
None of these

Ans. b

21. A panchayat samiti at the block level is
An advisory body
An administrative authority
A consultant committee
A supervisory authority

Ans. d

22. According to the World Bank’s latest development report, the position of the Indian economy in the world is theLargest
Smallest
Second Largest
Fifth Largest

Ans. d

23. If the cash reserve ratio is lowered by the RBI, it’s impact on credit creation will beIncrease it
Decrease it
No impact
None of the other

Ans. a

24. is a joint irrigation project of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh states
Damodar Valley Project
Kosi Project
Son Barrage Project
Gandak Project

Ans. d

25. According to 2001 census ---- percent population of India lives in Bihar state
8
10
11
12

Ans. a

1.     To whom, in his own words, did Rudyard Kipling dedicate his collection, 'Plain Tales From the Hills'?
To the wittiest woman in India

2. 'Beyond the Last Blue Mountain' is R.M Lala's biography of which Indian?
J. R. D. Tata

3. Which of Agatha Christie's books was the first to be serialised in the Evening News under the title 'Anna the Adventure'?
The Man In The Brown Suit

4. Who has authored the book A Brief History of Time?
(a) Carl Sagan                     (b) Issac Asimov
(c) John Gribbin                  (d) Stephen Hawking
Ans : D

5. The book 'Living with Honour' is written by
(a) Arundhati Roy             (b) Shiv Khera
(c) Pramod Batra              (d) Vikram Seth
Ans : B

6. The book 'Cricket My Style' is written by
(a) Sunil Gavaskar             (b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Kapil Dev                    (d) Mohinder Amarnath
Ans : C

7. Who wrote the book 'The Book of Indian Birds'
Dr. Salim Ali

8. 'Economic History of India' was written by
R. C. Dutt

9. The oldest of the vedic literature is
(a) Sama Veda                 (b) Yajur Veda
(c) Rig Veda                    (d) Atharva Veda
Ans : C

10. 'Leelavathi' the famous sanskrit grantha is a book on
Mathematics

11. Who is the author of ‘An Equal Music’ (1999)
Vikram Seth

12. Who wrote the poem ‘Passage to India’ in 1871
Walt Whitman (American Poet)

13. Who is the author of the book ‘The Canterbury Tales’
Geoffrey Chaucer

14. Who is the author of the book ‘Anna Karenina’
Leo Tolstoy

15. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Tom Sawyer’
Mark Twain

16. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Sherlock Holmes’
Sir Arthur Conan Doyle

17. Who is the author of the book ‘The Comedy of Errors’
William Shakespeare

18. Who is the author of the book ‘Animal Farm’
George Orwell

19. Who is the author of the book ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’
Samuel Taylor Coleridge

20. Who is the author of the book, ‘Through the Looking-Glass’
Lewis Carroll

21. Who is the author of the book, ‘All’s Well That Ends Well’
William Shakespeare

22. Who is the author of the book ‘Akbar-nama’
Abul Fazl

23. Who is the author of the book ‘The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn’
Mark Twain

24. Who is the author of the book ‘Antony and Cleopatra’
William Shakespeare

25. Who is the author of the book , Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica (Mathematical Principles of Natural Philosophy, 1687)
Sir Isaac Newton

26. Who wrote the novel ‘A Passage to India’ in 1924
E.M. Forster (English novelist)

27. Who wrote ‘Meghdoot’
Kalidas

28. The author of the book ‘The Guide’
R.K. Narayan

29. Author of the famous book ‘On the Origin of Species’
Charles Darwin

30. The Griha Sutra deals with the
(a) Individual                 (b) State
(c) Society                    (d) Family
Ans : D

31. The Tamil epic ‘Tholkappiyam’ deals with
(a) Dance                 (b) Grammar
(c) History                (d) Social Life
Ans : B

32. Ã¢â‚¬ËœMark Twain’ is the ser name of
(a) Charles Lamb                 (b) Samuel Clemens
(c) Erick Blair                      (d) Charles Dickens
Ans : B

33. Which among the following is not a work of Leo Tolstoy
(a) Anna Karenina                 (b) Crime and Punishment
(c) Resurrection                     (d) War and Peace
Ans : B

34. Who wrote the book ‘Punjab – The Knights of Falsehood’
K.P.S. Gill

35. Ã¢â‚¬ËœOne Life’ was written by
Dr. Christiaan Barnard

36. The detective characters Hercule Poirot and Miss Marple was created by the author
Agatha Christie

37. Who wrote the book ‘A House for Mr. Biswas’
V.S. Naipal

38. Who wrote the book ‘The Golden Threshold’
Sarojini Naidu

39. Ã¢â‚¬ËœThe Last Supper’ is a painting by
Leonardo da Vinci

40. Who is the author of ‘Sur Sagar’
Sur Das

41. Author of ‘The God of Small Things’ is
Arundhati Roy

42. The author of ‘Das Capital’ is
Karl Marx

43. The book ‘As You like It’ was written by
Shakespeare

44. Writer 'William Sydney Porter' popularly known as
O. Henry

45. Ã¢â‚¬ËœThe Brave new World’ is the book by
Aldous Huxley

46. Who was the publisher of first Harry Potter series novel ‘Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone’ in 1997
Bloomsbury Publishing

47. The first novel in the Harry Potter series was first published in which country
Britain

48. The first novel in the Harry Potter series was published in the year
1997

49. The first novel in the Harry Potter series ‘Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone’ was published in the US in1998 as
Harry Potter and the Sorcerer's Stone

50. The first novel in the Harry Potter series is
Harry Potter and the Philosopher's Stone

Quiz : Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers

No.	Question	Answer
01	The first Prime minister of Bangladesh was	Mujibur Rehman
02	The longest river in the world is the	Nile
03	The longest highway in the world is the	Trans-Canada
04	The longest highway in the world has a length of	About 8000 km
05	The highest mountain in the world is the	Everest
06	The country that accounts for nearly one third of the total teak production of the world is	Myan mar
07	The biggest desert in the world is the	Sahara desert
08	The largest coffee growing country in the world is	Brazil
09	The country also known as "country of Copper" is	Zambia
10	The name given to the border which separates Pakistan and Afghanistan is	Durand line
11	The river Volga flows out into the	Capsian sea
12	The coldest place on the earth is	Verkoyansk in Siberia
13	The country which ranks second in terms of land area is	Canada
14	The largest Island in the Mediterranean sea is	Sicily
15	The river Jordan flows out into the	Dead sea
16	The biggest delta in the world is the	Sunderbans
17	The capital city that stands on the river Danube is	Belgrade
18	The Japanese call their country as	Nippon
19	The length of the English channel is	564 kilometres
20	The world's oldest known city is	Damascus
21	The city which is also known as the City of Canals is	Venice
22	The country in which river Wangchu flows is	Myanmar
23	The biggest island of the world is	Greenland
24	The city which is the biggest centre for manufacture of automobiles in the world is	Detroit, USA
25	The country which is the largest producer of manganese in the world is	USA
26	The country which is the largest producer of rubber in the world is	Malaysia
27	The country which is the largest producer of tin in the world is	Malaysia
28	The river which carries maximum quantity of water into the sea is the	Mississippi
29	The city which was once called the `Forbidden City' was	Peking
30	The country called the Land of Rising Sun is	Japan
31	Mount Everest was named after	Sir George Everest
32	The volcano Vesuvius is located in	Italy
33	The country known as the Sugar Bowl of the world is	Cuba
34	The length of the Suez Canal is	162.5 kilometers
35	The lowest point on earth is	The coastal area of Dead sea
36	The Gurkhas are the original inhabitants of	Nepal
37	The largest ocean of the world is the	Pacific ocean
38	The largest bell in the world is the	Tsar Kolkol at Kremlin, Moscow
39	The biggest stadium in the world is the	Strahov Stadium, Prague
40	The world's largest diamond producing country is	South Africa
41	Australia was discovered by	James Cook
42	The first Governor General of Pakistan is	Mohammed Ali Jinnah
43	Dublin is situated at the mouth of river	Liffey
44	The earlier name of New York city was	New Amsterdam
45	The Eifel tower was built by	Alexander Eiffel
46	The Red Cross was founded by	Jean Henri Durant
47	The country which has the greatest population density is	Monaco
48	The national flower of Britain is	Rose
49	Niagara Falls was discovered by	Louis Hennepin

Quiz : Important General Knowledge Questions with Answers

Part - 2

No.	Question	Answer
50	The national flower of Italy is	Lily
51	The national flower of China is	Narcissus
52	The permanent secretariat of the SAARC is located at	Kathmandu
53	The gateway to the Gulf of Iran is	Strait of Hormuz
54	The first Industrial Revolution took place in	England
55	World Environment Day is observed on	5th June
56	The first Republican President of America was	Abraham Lincoln
57	The country famous for Samba dance is	Brazil
58	The name of Alexander's horse was	Beucephalus
59	Singapore was founded by	Sir Thomas Stamford Raffles
60	The famous British one-eyed Admiral was	Nelson
61	The earlier name of Sri Lanka was	Ceylon
62	The UNO was formed in the year	1945
63	UNO stands for	United Nations Organization
64	The independence day of South Korea is celebrated on	15th August
65	`Last Judgement' was the first painting of an Italian painter named	Michelangelo
66	Paradise Regained was written by	John Milton
67	The first President of Egypt was	Mohammed Nequib
68	The first man to reach North Pole was	Rear Peary
69	The most famous painting of Pablo Picasso was	Guermica
70	The primary producer of newsprint in the world is	Canada
71	The first explorer to reach the South Pole was	Cap. Ronald Amundson
72	The person who is called the father of modern Italy is	G.Garibaldi
73	World literacy day is celebrated on	8th September
74	The founder of modern Germany is	Bismarck
75	The country known as the land of the midnight sun is	Norway
76	The place known as the Roof of the world is	Tibet
77	The founder of the Chinese Republic was	San Yat Sen
78	The first Pakistani to receive the Nobel Prize was	Abdul Salam
79	The first woman Prime Minister of Britain was	Margaret Thatcher
80	The first Secretary General of the UNO was	Trygve Lie
81	The sculptor of the statue of Liberty was	Frederick Auguste Bartholdi
82	The port of Banku is situated in	Azerbaijan
83	John F Kennedy was assassinated by	Lee Harry Oswald
84	The largest river in France is	Lore
85	The Queen of England who married her brother-in-law was	Catherine of Aragon
86	The first negro to be awarded the Nobel Peace Prize was	Ralph Johnson Bunche
87	The first British University to admit women for degree courses was	London University
88	The principal export of Jamaica is	Sugar
89	New York is popularly known as the city of	Skyscrapers
90	Madagascar is popularly known as the Island of	Cloves
91	The country known as the Land of White Elephant is	Thailand
92	The country known as the Land of Morning Calm is	Korea
93	The country known as the Land of Thunderbolts is	Bhutan
94	The highest waterfalls in the world is the	Salto Angel Falls, Venezuela
95	The largest library in the world is the	United States Library of Congress, Washington DC

PAPER :  IAS GENERAL STUDIES PRELIM - 2007 Question Paper Free Online Tests

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Known as )
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam Dancer
B. Birju maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarshini Govind 3 Mridangam Maestro
D. T V Gopalkrishanan 4. Kathak Dancer
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 1 4 3
b). 3 1 4 2
c). 2 4 1 3
d). 3 4 1 2

2. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web ( WWW) ?
a). Edward Kasner b). Bill Gates
c). Tim Berner Lee d). Vinod Bham

3.Where are the headquarters of the organization of Islamic Conference ( OIC ) located?
a). Dubai b). Jeddah
c). Islamabad d). Ankara

4. Which one of the following is not a member of Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
a). Russia b). Kazakhistan
c). Ukrain d). Uzbekistan

5. Who among the following wrote the Book – Ayodhya : 6 December 1992 ?
a). Chandra shekar b). P V Narasimha Rao
c). Jasvant Singh d). Arun Shorie

6. Wangari Maathai , the noble Prize winner from Kenya is known for her contribution to which one of the following ?
a). Journalism b). International economics
c). Sustainable development d). Child Development

7. How is Gabriel Garcia well known as
a). Known as research in agriculture b). A renowned football coach
c). A great writer who won the noble prize for Literature d). Known for research in railway engineering

8. where was the first conference of the Pugwash conference on Science and World Affair held in the year 1957?
a). Minnowbrrok (USA ) b).Rhode Island ( USA )
c). Nova Scotia (Canada ) d). Nagasaki ( Japan )

9. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
a). Environmental Protection b). Civil Aviation
c). Journalism d). Olympic Games

10. Raghu Rai is well known for which one of the following areas?
a). Environment protection b). Olympic Games
c). Journalism d). Civil Aviation

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Eminent Person) List-II ( Known as )
A. Bhanu Bharti 1. Music composer
B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and Literature
C. Mohd. Zahur Khayyam 3. Theatre Director
D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife Film maker
Codes:

A B C D
a). 1 4 3 2
b). 3 2 1 4
c). 1 2 3 4
d). 3 4 1 2

12. Who wrote the book- ‘ The story of the integration of Indian State’?
a). B N Rau b). C Rajagopalchari
c). Krishna Menon d). V P Menon

13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I ( Writer) List-II ( Book )
A. V S Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur
B. Salman Rushdie 2. In a free State
C. Paul Scott 3. Midnight children
D. J G Farrell 4. Staying on
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 3 4 1
b). 4 1 2 3
c). 2 1 4 3
d). 4 3 2 1

14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Series of International Paper Size is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 m2 ( approx)
2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of the A0 size paper.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

15. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane Declaration in October ,2006?
a). China and South Africa b).India and South Africa
c). South Africa & Botswana d). Saudi Arabia and South Africa

16.Recently , the European Union and Other Six Countries including India Signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor ( ITER ) Project . Which one of the Following was not a signatory to it ?
a). Canada b). China
c). Japan d). USA

17. Which one of the following Himalayan Passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China?
a). Chang La b). Jara La
c). Nathu La d). Shipki La

18. How is Steve Fossett known as ?
a). As a crocodile Hunter
b). For Completing the longest non stop flight around the globe
c). For Swimming across Atlantic Ocean
d). For climbing to Mt. Everest without any co climber

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Position/Organization)
A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
B. Margret Chan 2. Speaker , US House of representatives
C. Paskal Lamy 3 WHO
D. Steve Ballmer 4. Microsoft
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 1 3 4
b). 4 3 1 2
c). 2 3 1 4
d). 4 1 3 2

20. in which of the following cities is the Global Automotive research center being set up ?
a). Chennai b). Hyderabad
c). Pune d). Gurgaon

21. Consider the following statements :
1. Republic won majority in the US House of representative Election hold in the year 2006.
2. Republican Bobby Jindal , won a seat in US House of representatives for the second time.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

22. What is the broad area in which the noble Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine ,worked to get prize ?
a). Prevention of weakening due to aging b). Flow of genetic information
c). Immunology and disease resistance d). Adult stem cell research

23. Which one of the following countries is planning to construct a rival to the Panama Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans?
a). Colombia b). Costa Rica
c). Guatemala d). Nicaragua

24. Consider the following statements :
1. In the Year 2006 , India Successfully tested a full fledged cryogenic stage in rocketry.
2. After USA , Russia and China , India is the only country to have acquired the capability for use of cryogenic stage in rocketry.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

25. With the reference to the international meeting held in the year 2006, Which of the following Pairs is/are correctly matched ?
1. NAM Summit : Havana
2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok
3. EU India Summit : Helsinki
4. UN Climate change conference : Geneva
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a). 1 only b). 1 and 3 only
c). 1,2 and 3 d). 2,3 and 4

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Company)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group
B. Tulsi R Tanti 2. Info Edge India ( which runs naukri.com)
C. Shashi Ruia 3 Indian Airline
D. S Bikachandani 4. Suzon Energy
Codes:

A B C D
a). 2 4 1 3
b). 3 1 4 2
c). 2 1 4 3
d). 3 4 1 2

27. consider the following statements :
1). North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC ) is the name of the new organization which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organization ( NATO ).
2). The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the following given above is/are correct ?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

28. For which one of the following books did Kiran Desai win the Man Boker Prize 2006.
a). The Secret River b). In the country of Men
c). The inheritance of Loss c). Mother’s Milk

29. Who among of the following is Chile’s first women president ?
a). D Ortega b). M Bachelet
c). E Morales d). A Garcia

30. What was the purpose of the Operation Sukoon launched by Governement of India ?
a). Helping Indonesia in its efforts to rehabilitate the victims of earthquake in that country.
b). Evacuation the India national from Lebanon during the conflict in the middle east.
c). Assisting United Nations in its to help the Civil war victims in the Darfur region of North Africa.
d). Providing a relief package to farmers after a spate of suicides by other farmers in Andhra Pradesh.

31. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined the European Union 2007 ?
a). Bulgaria and Romania b). Bulgaria and Belgium
c). Romania and Slovenia d). Hungary and Crotia

32. Which one of the following organizations won the CSIR Award for Science and Technology ( S & T ) Innovations for Rural Development , 2006.
a). CLRI b). IARI
c). NDDB d). NDRI

33. Which of the following countries recently upgraded its defense agency to a full defense ministery ?
a). Italy b). Japan
c). Switzerland d). Poland

34. Consider the following statements:
a). China has the observer’s status at the South Asean for Regional corporation.
b). India has the observer’s status at the Shanghai corporation Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only .
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 or 2

35. In the latter half of the year 2006, in which one of the following countries did a military coup take place?
a). Caobodia b). Laos
c). Thailand d). Vietnam

36. Near the end of the year 2006 , which one of the following countries was suspended from the commonwealth after a military coup?
a). Kenya b). Myanmar
c). Fiji d). Tanjania

37. Who was Leander Paes’s partner when he won Double Final in the US open Tennis Tournament?
a). Max Mirnyi b). Martin Damm
c). Bob Bryan d). Mike Brayan

38. Which of the following cities has been the venue of the Asean Games for the maximum number of times from the years 1951 to the year 2006 ?
a). Delhi b). Bangkok
b). Tokyo d). Beijing

39. Who among of the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Crickets?
1. Wasim Akram 2. Richard Hadlee
3. Glen McGrath 4. Courtney Walse
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a). 1 and 2 only b). 3 and 4 only
c). 1, 2 , 3 only c). 1 , 2 , 3 , 4

40. Parimarajan Negi excelled in which one of the following games ?
a). Billiards b). Swimming
c). Chess d). Weightlifting

41. Which one of the following Pairs is not correctly matched?
a). T S Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
b). K C pant : Chairman , Tenth Finance Commissioner of India
c). A M Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
d). R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India

42. Consider the following statements :
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 Contemplates to establish a judicial council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the chief Justice of India, High court Chief Justice and judges.
2. Under the protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

43. Consider the Following Statements:
1. The Mode of removal of a judge of a high court in India is same as that of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court can not plead or act in any Court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

44. Which one of the following is the correct Chronological order of the Formation of the following as full states of Indian Union?
a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal pradesh
c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland- Arunachal Pradesh
d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana

45. Who among of the following have been the Union Finance Minister of India ?
1. V P Singh 2. R Venkataraman
3. Y B Charan 4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a). 1 , 2 and 3 only b). 1 , 3 and 4 only
c). 2 and 4 only d). 1, 2 , 3 and 4

46.
Assertion ( A). the Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok sabha
and The Rajya Sabha

Reasons ( R ) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of
the Unioin.

47.Who is the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha ?
a). Hukam Singh b). G V Mavalankar
c). K M Munshi d). U N Dhebar

48.
Consider the following statements:
1. Jawahar Nehru was in his fourth Term as the Prime minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawahar Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a member of parliament.
3. The First non congress Prime minister of India assumed the office in the year 1977.
Which of the following statements given above is are correct.
a). 1 and 2 only b). 3 Only
c). 1 only d). 1 and 3

49. Consider the following statements:
1. The national wide Scheme of the National Child Labour Projects ( NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2.Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

50.
Consider the following statement in respect of financial emergency under the article 360 of the constitution of India .
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both house of Parliament.

2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affair of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the high courts.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

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Paper : 2
51.Which of the constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at the center and in a state must not exceed 15 percent of the total numbers in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the legislative Assembly of that state , respectively ?
a). 91st b). 93rd
c). 95th d). 97th

52.Consider the following statements :
1. The chairman of the committee on public Accounts is appointed by the speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The committee on Public Accounts Comprise Members of the Lok Sabha , Members of Rajya Sabha, and a few eminent persons of the industry and Trade.
Which of the statements given above/are correct.
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

53. Which one of the following was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave,s Bhoodan Movement at the
beginning of the movement?
a). Udayagiri b). Rapur
c). Pochampalli d). Venkatagiri

54. Where is the famous Vijaya Vitala temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical noted located?
a) Belur b). Bhadrachalam
c). Hampi d). Srirangam

55. Assertion (A): According to the wavell Plan, the Number of Hindu and Muslim members in the executive council were to be equal.

Reason ( R) : Wavell thought that this arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.

56. Which one of the Following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jaliawala Bagh?
a). The Arm Act b). The Public Safety Act
c). The Rowlatt Act d). The Vernacular Press Act

57.At which one of the following places did mahatma Gandhi first start his satyagraha in India?
a). Ahemdabad b). Bardoli
c). Champaran d). Kheda

58. Who Among the following started the newspaper Shome Prakash?
a). Dayanand Saraswati b). Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c). Raja Rammohan Roy d). Surendranath Banerjee

59. The ruler of which on of the following states was removed from power by the British on the pretext of misgovernance.
a). Awadh b). Jhansi
c). Nagpur d). Satara

60. Who Among the following Europeans were the last to come to pre independence India Traders ?
a). Dutch b). English
c). French d). Potuguese

61. Consider the following statement :
1. Robert Clive was the first Governor General of Bengal
2. William Bentic was the first Governor general of India
Which of the statement given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 or 2

62. Which one of the Following was the first fort Constructed by the British in India ?
a). Fort William b). Fort St. George
c). Fort St. David d). Fort St. Angelo

63. The Song ‘ Amar Sonar Bangla’ written during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the Liberation Struggle of Bangladesh and was adopted as the National Anthem of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song?
a) Rajni Kanta Sen b). Dwijendralal Ray
c). Mukunda Das d). Rabindra Nath tagore

64.The First factory Act restricting the working hours of women and children and authorizing local governments to make necessary rules was adopted during whose time?
a) Lord Lytton b). Lord Bentinck
c). Lord Ripon d). Lord canning

65.Who among the following wrote the book Bahubivah?
a). Raja Rammohan Roy b). Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
c). Pandita Rambai d). Rabindranath Tagore

66. In which one of the following districts , have been reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the recent past.
a). Hoshangabad b). Raipur
c). Sambalpur d). Warangal

67. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
a). Buenous Aires b). Hawaiian Islands
b). Rio de Janeiro d). Valletta

68. With reference to steel industry in India in the recent times , considering the following statements :
1. Vizag Steel Plant ( RINL ) has been declared Mini Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.
Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

69. The Stilwell Road , built in 1940s , which has recently in news connects with the following ?
a). Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via Bangladesh.
b). Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar.
c). Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibat via Bhutan
d). Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via Myanmar .

70. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip ?
a). Simlipal National Park b). Periyar Wildlife Sanchary
c). Manjira Wildlife Sanchary d). Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

71. Where are Shevarory Hills located ?
a) .Andhra Pradesh b). Karnataka
c). Kerala d). Tamilnadu

72. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production ( in million tones ) of the given food grains in India ?
a). Wheat – Rice – Pulses – Coarse Cereals b). Rice – Wheat – Pulse- Coarse Cereals
c). Wheat – Rice – Coarse cereals – pulse d). Rice – Wheat – Coarse Cereals – Pulse

73. What was the average distance ( apporoximate ) between the Sun and the earth ?
a). 70 * 105 Km b). 70 * 105 Km
c). 70 * 105 Km d). 70 * 105 Km

74. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the others cities at any given instant ?
a). London ( UK ) b). Lisbon ( Portugal )
c). Accra ( Ghana ) d). Addis Ababa ( Ethiopia )

75. Assertion ( A ) : River Kalinadi is an east following river in the Southern Part of India.
Reason ( R ) : The Deccan Plateau is higher along its western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the East.

76. Assertion ( A ) : There are no tea plantations in any African country.

Reason ( R ) : Tea plants need fertile soil with high humus.

77. Which of the following National Highways passes through Maharastra , Chattisgarh and Orissa.
a). NH-4 b). NH-5
c). NH-6 c). NH-7

78. Consider the following statements :
1.Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
2.Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which one of the following States of India has the lowest density of population?
a). Himanchal Pradesh b). Meghalaya
c). Arunachal Pradesh d). Sikkim

80.
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the Lists :
List-I ( City ) List II ( River )
A. Bankong 1. Irrawaddy
B. Phnom-Penh 2. Mekong
C. Hanoi 3. Menam ( Chao Phraya )
D. Yangon 4. Red River
Codes :

A B C D
a). 3 2 4 1
b). 4 1 3 2
c). 3 1 4 2
d). 4 2 3 1

81. Consider the following statements:
1. Either of the two belts over the ocean at about 300 to 350 N and S Latitudes is known as Horse Latitude.
2. Horse Latitude are low pressure Belt.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2.

82. Which one among of the flowing rivers originates at Amarkantak ?
a). Damodar b). Mahanadi
c). Narmada d). Tapi

83. Which one among the following rivers is the longest ?
a). Amazon b). Amur
c). Congo d). Lena

84. Which one among the following major cities is most eastwards located ?
a). Hyderabad b). Bhopal
c). Lucknow d). Rosewood

85. Out of the Southern States : Andhra Pradesh , Karnataka , Kerala and Tamil Nadu , which shares boundaries with maximum number of Indian state ?
a). Andhra Pradesh only b). Karnataka Only
c). Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka d). Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala

86.
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the Lists :
List-I ( Alumni Company ) List II ( Location )
A. BALCO 1. Hirakunda
B. HINDALCO 2. Korba
C. Indian Alumni Company 3. Koraput
D. NALCO 4. Renukoot
Codes :

A B C D
a). 3 1 4 2
b). 2 4 1 3
c). 3 4 1 2
d). 2 1 4 3

87. Which of the following is located in the Bastar region ?
a). Bandhvagarh National Park b). Dundeli Sanchary
c). Rajaji National Park d). Indravati National Park

88. Through which one of the following Straits, does a tunnel connect the united Kingdom and France:
a). Davis Strait b). Denmark Strait
b). Strait of Dover d). Strait of Gibraltar

89. Consider the following statements:
1. The annul range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean than that in the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The Annual range of temperature is greater in the Northern Hemisphere than that in the Southern Hemi sphere.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

90. The Largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one of the following countries?
a). Australia b). Cuba
c). Ghana d). Philippines

91. In which state is the Guru Shikhar Peak located :
a). Rajasthan b) Gujarat
b). Madhya Pradesh d). Maharastra

92. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the Lists :
List-I ( Town ) List II ( River nearer to lists )
A. Betul 1. Indravati
B. Jagdalpur 2. Narmada
C. Jabalpur 3. Shipra
D. Ujjain 4. Tapti
Codes :

A B C D
a). 1 4 2 3
b). 4 1 2 3
c). 4 1 2 3
d). 1 4 3 2

93. Dalbergia Species is associated with which one of the following :
a). Cashew nut b). Coffee
c). Tea d). Rosewood

94. Consider the following statements :
1. In India , Red Panda is naturally found in the western Himalayan only.
2. In India , Slow Loris Lives in the dense forest of the North East.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

95. Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan was in news in the year 2006 because of which one of the following ?
a). Finding high quality gas reserves b). Finding uranium deposit
c). Finding zinc deposit d). Installation of wind power units

96. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
a). International standard for safety in civil aviation
b). Measure against cyber crimes
c). Measure against drug abuse by sport person
d). International Standards for measuring the adequacy of Bank’s capital.

97. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross domestic product of India?
a). Service – Industry – Agriculture b). Service – Agriculture – Industry
c). industry – service – Agriculture d). Industry – Agriculture – Service

98. Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate which other banks borrow from reserve Bank of India.
2. A Value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfectly equal income for every one in its populations.
Which of the following statements given above is / are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 or 2 c). Neither 1 or 2

99.The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly – owned subsidiary of which one of the following?
a). Sate Bank of India b). Reserve Bank of India
c). ICICI Bank c). Life insurance Corporation of India

100.Tarapur committee was associated with which one of the following?
a). Special Economic Zone b). Fuller capital Account convertibility
c). Foreign exchange reserves d). Effect of oil prices on the Indian Economy

101.Who among of the following served as the chief economist of the International Monetary Fund?
a). Ashok Lahiri b). Sumantra Ghosal
c). Saumitra Chaudhuri d). Raghuram Rajan

102.Participatory Notes ( PNs) are associated with which one the following ?
a). consolidate fund of India b). Foreign Institutional Investors
c).United Nations Development Programme d). Kyoto protocol.

103. Which one of the following is another name of RDX ?
a). Cyanohydrin b). Dextran
c). Cyclohexane d). Cyclonite

104. Which one of the following non metal is not a poor conductor of electricity?
a). Sulphur b). Selenium
c). Bromide d). Phosphorus

105. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following ?
a). Cardiology b). Influenza Virus
c). HIV/AIDS d). Alzheimer

106. Consider the following statements :
1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have red colour.
2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have blue colure.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

107. Consider the following statements:
1. A flute of smaller length waves of lower frequency.
2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal elastic waves only.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

108. Four wires of same material and of dimensions as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude separately. Which one of them will be elongated maximum.
a). Wire of 1m length and 2 mm diameter b). Wire of 2m length and 2 mm diameter
c). Wire of 3m length and 1.5 mm diameter d). Wire of 1m length and 1 mm diameter

109.Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plants becomes modified into a pitcher?
a). Stem b). Leaf
c). Stipule d). Petiole

110. Assertion ( A ) : A jet aircraft moving at Mach Number equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of 15 km than
while moving at Mack Number equal to 1 near the sea level.

Reason ( R ) : The velocity of sounds on the temperature of surrounding medium.

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111. In the Human Body , which structure is the appendix attached to ?
a). The large intestine b) The Small intestine
c). the gall Bladder d). The Stomach

112. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off ultraviolet rays ?
a). Soda Glass b). Pyrex Glass
c). Jena Glass d). Crookes Glass

113. In the Human Body which on the following hormones regulates blood calcium and Phosphate?
a). Glucagon b). Growth Hormone
c). Parathyroid Hormone d). Thyroxin

114. How do most insects respire
a). Through skin b). Through gills
c). by Lungs d). By Tracheal system

115. Which one of the following parts of Human brain is regulating center for swallowing and vomiting?
a). Cerebellum b). Cerebrum
c). Medulla Oblongata d). Pons

116.Production of which one of the following is a function of the Liver.
a). Lipase b). Urea
c). Mucus d). Hydrochloric acid

117. Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the Human system?
a). Trypsin b). Gastrin
c). Ptyalin d). Pepsin

118. Which of the following light types of light are strongly absorbed by plants :
a). Violet and Orange b). Blue and Red
c). Indigo and Yellow d). Yellow and Violet

119. In Human Being , normally in which one of the following parts , does the sperm fertilize the ovum ?
a). Cervix b). Fallopian Tube
c). Lower Part of Uterus d). Upper Part of Uterus

120. Three identical vessels A , B and C are filled with water , mercury and Kerosene respectively up to an equal height. The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the three taps opened simultaneously , then which vessel is emptied first?
a) . Vessel B
b). All the vessels A , B and C will be emptied simultaneously
c). Vessel A
d). Vessel C

121. Which one of the following is called Philosopher’s wool ?
a). Zinc Bromide b). Zinc Nitrate
c). Zinc Oxide d). Zinc Choloride

122. Which one of the following does not contain silver ?
a). Horn Silver b). German Silver
c). Ruby Silver d)., Lunar Caustic

123. Which of the following types is used by computed tomography employed for visualization of the internal structure of human body ?
a). X Ray b). South waves
c). Magnetic resonance d). Radioisotopes

124.Which on the following is the correct sequence in order of decreasing length of the three structural parts given below of small intestine in the human body?
a). Jejunum - Duodenum – ileum b). ileum – Duodenum – Jejunum
c). jejunum – Ileum – Duodenum d). ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum

125. Consider the following statements:
1. In the November 2006, DRDO successfully conducted the interception test using Prithvi II missile.
2. Prithvi II is a surface to surface missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attack .
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
a). 1 only b). 2 only
c). Both 1 and 2 d). Neither 1 nor 2

126. NASA’ s Deep impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
a). Halley’s comet b). Hale-Bopp
c). Hyakutake d). Temple 1

127. MCA -21 is a major initiate taken up by the Government of India in which one of the following areas?
a). Foreign Direct investment in India b). Attracting international tourism
c). e-governance d). Modernization of Airports

128.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II ( Known as )
A. John C Mather 1. Co-founder of Microsoft
B. Michael Griffin 2. space walker
C. Paul G Allen 3. Administrator of NASA
D. Piers Sellers 4. Nobel prize winner , 2006 in Physics
Codes:

A B C D
a). 4 1 3 2
b). 2 3 1 4
c). 4 3 1 2
d). 2 1 3 4

129. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a). Cosmic Background : Satellite Programme Explorer ( COBE )
b). Falcon : Under sea cable system
c). Discovery : Space shuttle
d). Atlantis : Space station

130. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Company) List-II ( Major Area/product)
A. Chevron 1. Wind Energy
B. AT&T 2. Oil
C. AMD 3. Telephone ,Internet
D. Enercon GmbH 4. Micro-processor
Codes:
A B C D
a). 2 1 4 3
b). 4 3 2 1
c). 2 3 4 1
d). 4 1 2 3

131. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
a). Williams Dickson : Motion Picture Film
b). Charles Babbage : Programmable Computor
c). Nicholas Stern : Construction Technology
d). Brian Greene : String Theory

132. What is the Galileo project which has been in news recently ?
a). An intercountry programme of missile shield developed by United State of America.
b). A Project developed by India with Assistance from Canada.
c). An Environmental Protection being developed by Japan.
d). A Multi-satellite navigation project being developed by the European Union.

136.
Amit has five friends: 3 Girls and 2 boys . Amit’s wife is also has five friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In How many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and two girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s?
a). 24 b). 38
c). 46 d). 48

137.
Five balls of different colours are to be placed in the three different boxes such that any ox contains at least one ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
a). 90 b). 120
c). 150 d). 180

138.
All six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in any one word. The words so formed are then arranged as a dictionary . what will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence ?
a). 436 b). 590
c). 601 d). 751

139.
Three dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6 are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2 ?
a). 36 b). 81
c). 91 d). 116

140.
Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys – A , B , C , D and E such that no one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of different groups?
a). 5 b). 6
c). 7 d). 8

141.
Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6 , each face carrying one different number , further
1. The Face 2 is opposite to the face 6
2. The Face 1 is opposite to the face 5
3. The Face 3 is between the face 1 and face 5
4. The face 4 is adjacent to the Face 2 .
Which one of the following is correct?
a). The face 2 is adjacent to the Face 3
b). The Face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4
c). The Face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6
d). None of the above

142
. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In How many maximum different ways can this distribution be done.
a). 21 b). 24
c). 27 d). 33

143
. 6 equidistance vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equidistance horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of square thus formed?
a). 37 b). 55
c)126 d). 225

144.
A person has to completely put each three liquids , 403 liters of petrol , 465 liters of diesel and 496 liters of mobile oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled.
What is the least possible number of bottles required?
a). 34 b).44
c). 46 d). None of the above

145
. A and B can complete work together in 5 Days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, this work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the Job.
a). 10 b). 12
c). 15 d). 18

146.
If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written , what is the total number of times does the digit 6 appear?
a). 138 b). 139
c). 140 d). 141

147.
Amit starts from a point A and walks to another point B and then returns from B to A by his car and thus takes a total time of 6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car , he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways?
a). 7 hours 45 minutes b). 8 Hours 45 minutes
c). 8 hours 30 minutes d). 8 hours 45 minutes

148.
A Train completes a journey with a few stoppages in between at an average speed of 40 Km per hour. If the train had not stooped anywhere , it would have completed the journey at an average speed of 60 Km per hour . On an average , how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the journey ?
a). 20 minutes per hour b). 18 minutes per hours
c). 15 minutes per hours d). 10 minutes per hours

149.
The average salary of 100 employees in an office is Rs 16000 per month . The management decided to raise salary of every employee by 5 % but stooped a transport allowance of Rs 800 per month which was paid earlier to every employee. What will be the new average monthly salary?
a). Rs 16000 b). Rs 16500
c). Rs 16800 d). cannot be known since data are insufficient

150.
Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water , mercury and Kerosene respectively up to the equal height . The three vessels are provided with identical taps at the bottom of the vessels. If three taps are opened simultaneously, then which vessel is emptied first ?
a). Vessel B b). All the Vessels A , B and C will be emptied simultaneously
c). Vessel A d). Vessel C

Paper : BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) 2008 Model Question Papers
1. If the matrix A = is singular, then ? =
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
2. A = is symmetric, then x =
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
3. If A is a 3 x 3 matrix and det(3 A) = k det(A) then k =
a) 9 b) 6 c) 1 d) 27
4. If A = , then A-1 =
a) b) c) d)
5. If A = then A2 is equal to
a) A b) –A c) Null Matrix d) I
6. is a
a) rectangular matrix b) singular matrix
b) non-singular matrix d) skew-symmetric matrix
7. The slope of the straight line whose inclination with negative x-axis is 120º is
a) b) c) 1 d) infinity
8. If two lines whose slopes are m1 and m2 are perpendicular iff
a) m1 = m2 b) m1m2 = 0 c) m1m2 = -1 d) m1 + m2 = -1
9. The rate of increase of the radius of a circle is 1 cm/sec, the rate of increase of its area is 4? cm2/sec at a particular instant. The radius at that instant is
a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 6 cm
10.If the side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cm/min, the rate at which its area is increasing at the instant when the length of the side is 5 cm is
a) 0.2 cm 2/min b) 0.4 cm 2/min c) 0.1 cm 2/min d) 0.6 cm 2/min
11.A particle is moving on a plane according to the distance-time relationship is given by s = t3 + 6t2 + 8t – 4. When its acceleration is 8 m/sec2, its velocity is
a) 8 m/sec b) 11 m/sec c) 23 m/sec d) -1 m/sec
12.A stone moves vertically upwards according to the distance-time equation s = 16t – 2t2.The greatest height reached by the stone is
a) 4 b) 64 c) 32 d) 96
13.The distance moved by a particle traveling in a straight line in t seconds is given by s = 45t + 11t2 – t3. The time taken by the particle to come to rest is
a) 9 sec b) 5 sec c) 3 sec d) 2 sec
14.The distance s described by a particle in time t is given by the relation s = aet + be-t. The acceleration is equal to
a) velocity b) the distance traveled
c) twice the distance traveled d) the square of the distance traveled
15.The slope of the normal to the curve y = at the point is
a) 9 b) -9 c) d)
17.The normal to the curve y = f(x) will be parallel to x-axis if
a) b) c) d)
18.The maximum point of the function 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x is
a) x = 0 b) x = 5 c) x = 1 d) x = 2
19.The minimum value of 2×3 – 9×2 + 12x – 4 is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 0 d) -2
20.The point of inflection of the function x3 - 3×2 + 3x is
a) (1,0) b) (1,1) c) (6,126) d) (-1,-7)
21.Velocity of sound is greatest in
a) Solids b) Liquids c) Gases d) None of these
22.If the phase difference between the two waves is 2? during superimposition, then the resultant amplitude is
a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Half of maximum d) None of these
23.If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on superimposition produce a resultant disturbance of the same amplitude, the wave differ in phase by
a) b) c) d)
24.The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 2sin?(0.5x – 200t) where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is
a) 400 cm/sec b) 300 cm/sec c) 200 cm/sec d) 100 cm/sec
25.Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by y = 0.2 cos ?(0.04t + 0.02x – 1/6). The distance is expressed in cm and time in sec. The minimum distance between two particles separated by phase difference ?/2 is radian is
a) 25 cm b) 12.5 cm c) 8 cm d) 4 cm
26.Ultrasonic waves are those waves which
a) Human being can hear b) Human being cannot hear
c) Have high velocity d) Have large amplitude
27.It is possible to distinguish between the transverse and longitudinal waves by studying the property of
a) Interference b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
28.The following phenomenon cannot be observed for sound waves
a) Refraction b) Polarization c) Diffraction d) Reflection
29.Doppler shift in frequency does not depend upon
a) Frequency of the wave produced b) Velocity of the source
c) Velocity of the listener/observer d) Distance between source and listener
30.A source of sound of frequency 450 cycles/second is moving towards a stationary observer with 34 m/s speed. If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then the apparent frequency will be
a) 410 cps b) 550 cps c) 500 cps d) 450 cps
31.An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound of frequency n. The apparent frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, then the velocity of observer is
a) 166 m/s b) 664 m/s c) 332 m/s d) 1328 m/s
32.The equation of a wave traveling in a string can be written as y = 3 cos ?(100t – x).Its wavelength is
a) 100 cm b) 5 cm c) 3 cm d) 2 cm
33.Sound velocity is maximum in
a) O2 b) H2 c) He d) N2
34.Phon is the unit of
a) Pitch b) Quality c) Timbre d) Loudness
35.Loudness of sound L and corresponding intensity of sound I are related as
a) L = KI2 b) L = KI c) L = K d) L = K log I
36.The index of refraction of a medium is 1.5. If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, then its speed in the medium will be
a) 2 x 108 m/s b) 1.2 x 108 m/s c) 4 x 108 m/s d) 3.2 x 108 m/s
37.The ratio of intensities of the two waves is given by 4:1. The ratio of amplitudes of two waves is
a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 4:1 d) 1:4
38.Two source of waves are called coherent if
a) Both have the same amplitude by vibrations
b) Both produce waves of different wavelength having constant phase difference
c) Both produce waves of same wavelength having constant phase difference
d) Both produce waves having the same velocity
39.Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?
a) Interference b) Diffraction c) Polarization d) Photoelectric effect
40.Velocity of light will be minimum in
a) Vacuum b) Air c) Water d) Glass
41.Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz is
a) 2 x 106 m/s b) 3 x 106 m/s c) 4 x 106 m/s d) 5 x 106 m/s
42.A rocket is going away from earth at a speed of 106 m/s. If the wavelength of the light wave emitted by it be 5700 Å, its Doppler’s shift will be
a) 200 Å b) 19 Å c) 20 Å d) 0.2 Å
43.Colour of light is known by its
a) Velocity b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Polarization
44.A rocket is going away from the earth at a speed 0.2c where c = Speed of light. It emits a signal of frequency 4 x 107 Hz. The frequency observed by an observer on the earth will be
a) 4 x 106 Hz b) 3.3 x 106 Hz c) 3 x 106 Hz d) 5 x 107 Hz
45.A light wave has a frequency of 4 x 1014 Hz and a wavelength of 5 x 10-7 m in a medium. The refractive index of the medium is
a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.0 d) 0.66
46.Stars are twinkling due to optical phenomenon of
a) Refraction b) Scattering c) Reflection d) Diffraction
47.The splitting of white light into several colours on passing through a glass prism is due to
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Interference d) Diffraction
48.In Bohr’s model, if the atomic radius of the first orbit is ro, then the radius of the fourth orbit is
a) 16 ro b) ro c) 4 ro d) ro/16
49.The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximately
a) 8 eV b) 8 MeV c) 8 KeV d) 8 Volt
50.The mass equivalent of 931 MeV energy is
a) 1.66 x 10-20 kg b) 1.66 x 10-27 kg
c) 6.02 x 10-24 kg d) 6.02 x 10-27 kg

Paper : BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) 2008 Model Question Papers
Page - 2
51.The energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. is
a) 931 MeV b) 931 eV c) 931 KeV d) 9.31 MeV
52.The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is
a) + 2 b) – 1 c) + 1 d) – 2
53.The size of an atom is of the order of
a) 1 Å b) 1 fermi c) 1 nm b) 1 micron
54.The mass defect per nucleon is called
a) Packing fraction b) Binding Energy
c) Ionization Energy d) Excitation Energy
55.Nuclear Binding Energy is equal to
a) Mass of Nucleus b) Mass defect of Nucleus
c) Mass of Proton d) Mass of Neutron
56.The Pfund series of Hydrogen spectrum lies in the region\
a) Infrared b) Visible c) Ultraviolet d) X-Ray
57.The number of neutrons in 92U238 is
a) 92 b) 238 c) 330 d) 146
58.The energy required to remove an electron in a hydrogen atom from n = 10 state is
a) 136.0 eV b) 13.60 eV c) 1.36 eV d) 0.136 eV
59.The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given by
a) b) c) d)
60.The rest energy of an electron is
a) 510 MeV b) 51 MeV c) 931 MeV d) 93.1 MeV
61.In the lowest energy level of hydrogen atom, the electron has the angular momentum
a) ?/h b) h/? c) h/2? d) 2?/h
62.Laser is working in the principle of
a) Stimulated emission of radiation b) Spontaneous emission of radiation
c) Population inversion d) Normal population
63.The output beam of Ruby Laser has the wavelength of
a) 6943 Å b) 6328 Å c) 6300 Å d) 5500 Å
64.In the He-Ne Laser , the He-Ne in the mixture of
a) 10:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 5:1
65.The full form of LIDAR is
a) Light Amplitude and Ranging
b) Light Detection and Ranging
c) Light Defect and Ranging
d) Laser Detection and Ranging
66.Which one of the following is solid state laser?
a) Nd:YAG Laser b) He-Ne Laser c) CO2 Laser d) GaAs Laser
67.Populaton Inversion is achieved by means of
a) Optical pumping b) Gas pumping
c) Mechanical pumping d) Solid pumping
68.GRASERS are
a) Galium Arsenide Lasers b) Gamma Ray Lasers
c) General Ranging Lasers d) Gallium Radium Lasers
69.LASER Beam is
a) Highly monochromatic b) Highly Intense
c) Highly Coherent d) All of the above
70.Which one of the following cannot be used as a pulsed device?
a) CFA b) BWO c) TWT d) Magnetron
71.Klystron works in the principle of
a) Velocity Modulation b) Amplitude Modulation
c) Frequency Modulation d) Phase Modulation
72.Strapping in Magnetron is used to
a) prevent mode jumping b) ensure bunching
c) improve the phase focusing effect d) prevent cathode back heating
73.Which is not a TWT slow wave structure
a) Coupled cavity b) helix c) ring bars d) periodic permanent magnet
74.30 to 300 MHz frequency range is categorized as
a) MF b) VHF c) UHF d) SHF
75.Find the centre of the circle whose two extremities of diameter are (2,3) & (4,-1) is
a) (3,1) b) (6,8) c) (3,-2) d) (-6,8)
76.The centre and radius of the circle x2+y2+4x–6y+2=0 are
a) (-2,3) & 5 b) (-2,3) & 5 c) (2,-3) & 5 d) (2,-3) & 2
77.The angle between the straight lines x + 2y -3 = 0 & 2x + 4y -4 = 0 is
a) ? = 90º b) ? = 60º c) ? = 0º d) ? = 45º
78.The condition for the pair of straight lines ax2+2xy+by2+2x+2y+3=0 to be perpendicular is
a) h2–ab = 0 b) ab = 2 c) a+b = 0 d) a-b = 0
79.The particular integral of +3 + 2y = 2e-x is
a) 2xe-x b) 2e-x c) x2e-x d) xe-x
80.The particular integral of +4 + 4y = 3sin2x is
a) - cos2x b) cos2x c) sin2x d) 3xcos2x
81.The complementary function of (D2+3)y = e-x is
a) Ae x + Be x b) (A+Bx) e x
c) A cos3x + B sin3x d) A cos x + B sin x
82.The solution of (D2-2D-15)y = 0 is
a) y = Ae3x + Be5x b) y = Ae-3x + Be-5x
c) y = Ae5x + Be-3x d) y = Ae-5x + Be3x
83.The particular integral of + y = 3 is
a) 3 b) x/3 c) 3/y d) -3
84.The area bounded by x2 = 2y, the x-axis and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 is
a) b) c) d)
85.The area of the curve y = sin x bounded by the x-axis from x = 0 to x = 2? is
a) 0.5 b) 1.0 c) 1.5 d) 2.0
86.The area enclosed by the curve xy = 8 and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 4 is
a) 8 log 2 b) 16 log 2 c) 4 log 2 d) 2 log 4
87.The area bounded by the curve x = 3y2 – 9 and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and y = 1 is
a) 8 b) c) d) 3
88.When the area enclosed by the curve y = and the x-axis from x = 0 and x = 4 is rotated about the x-axis, the volume generated is
a) b) c) d)

89.The area included between the curve y = x – x2 and the x-axis revolves about the x-axis. The volume generated by the area is
a) b) c) d)
90.If the area enclosed between the curve y2 = x3 + 5x and the x-axis from x = 2 to x = 4 is revolved about the x-axis, the volume of the solid generated is
a) 45? b) 90? c) 120? d) 60?
91.
a) 12 b) 0 c) 6 d) 18
92. =
a) sin-1x b) cos-1x c) tan-1x c) cot-1x
93.
a) log f(x) b) 2 c) f(x) d) f(x)/2
94.
a) sec x b) tan x c) cos x d) cot x
95.The acceleration of a particle at any time t is given by 3×2 – 2x + 1, then the velocity of the particle at any time is
a) x3 -2x 2 + x b) x3 -x 2 + x c) x 2 + x d) x 2 + x +1
96.The Laplace transform of f(t) = t2 e-3t is
a) b) c) d)
97.The Laplace transform of f(t) = 1 + cos2t is
a) b) c) d)
98.The Laplace transform of unit step function is
a) b) c) 1 d)
99.The initial value of the function F(S) =
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d)
100.The inverse Laplace transform of is
a) e-t b) 1-e-t c) 1- et d) 2(1+ e-t)
101.The inverse Laplace transform of is
a) et cos2t b) et sin2t c) e-t cos2t d) e-t sin2t
102.(1+i)3 is equal to
a) 3 + 3i b) 1 + 3i c) 3 – 3i d) 2i – 2
103.The value of i13+i14+i15+i16 is
a) 0 b) -1 c) i d) –i
104. The polar form of complex number -1- i is
a) 2(cos + i sin ) b) 2(cos + i sin )
b) 2(cos - i sin ) d) 2(cos + i sin )
105.The modulus of a complex number is
a) b) 2 c) 1 d)
106.The value of (3+?+3?2)4 is
a) 16 b) 16 ? c) -16 ? d) 0
107.The value of is
a) cos 2? + i sin 2? b) cos ? + i sin ?
c) cos ? - i sin ? d) cos 26? + i sin 26?
108.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) = cosx defined in (-?, ?) is
a) 0 b) 1 c) ? d) -2 ?
109. The value of the fourier coefficient a0 for the half range series for f(x) defined in (0, ?) is
a) a0 = b) a0 =
c) a0 = d) 0
110.The value of the fourier coefficient an for the function f(x) is odd is
a) 0 b) an =
c) an= d) a0 =
111.The value of the fourier coefficient bn for the function f(x) is even is
a) 0 b) bn =
c) bn = d) bn =
112.If u = exy then x
a) u b) u logeu c) logeu d) ueu
113.If u = then the value of is
a) b) 0 c) x+y d) -1
114.If u = sin-1 , then the value of is
a) b) c) d)

115.If u = xy, then is
a) y/x b) xyx-1 c) yxy-1 d) xy-1
116. Given = = 6 and . = 18, the angle between and is
a) b) c) d)
117.( - ) x ( + ) =
a) 2 x b) x c) 2 x d) 2 - 2
118.The volume of the parallelepiped whose three coterminous edges are represented by the vectors + , + , + is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
119.The value of p such that the vectors -2 + 3 , 4 +3 - and 11 +p + 7 are coplanar is
a) -7 b) 0 c) -12 d) 12
120.Reverberation of sound means
a) existence of sound in a room
b) vibration of sound waves
c) existence of sound eventhough the source of sound is cutoff
d) strong echoes
121.Ultrasonic waves can be produced by
a) Piezo-electric effect b) Inverse Piezo-electric effect
c) Magnetostriction effect d) Both b & c
122.The Sabine’s formula for reverberation time is
a) T = b) T =
c) T = d) T = 0.16 aAS

1.     Which is the only vector quantity out of the following?
(a) Electrostatic potential
(b) Moment of a spinning body
(c) Current flowing in a metal
(d) Charge of a gold leaf electroscope
Ans: B

2. If the wavelength of incident light changes from 400 nm to 300 nm, the stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from a surface becomes approximately
(a) 1.0 volt greater
(b) 1.0 volt smaller
(c) 0.5 volt greater
(d) 0.5 volt smaller
(e) 0.1 volt greater
Ans: A

3. Sound is propagated in air as
(a) Stationary waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Transverse waves
(d) Standing waves
Ans: B

4. Surface tension of water is 0.072 Nm−1. The excess pressure inside a water drop of diameter 1.2 mm is
(a) 0.086 Nm−2
(b) 240 Nm−2
(c) 120 Nm−2
(d) 72 Nm−2
Ans: B

5. Two radioactive nuclides x and y have half lives 1 hour and 2 hours respectively. Initially the samples have equal number of nuclei. After 4 hours the ratio of the numbers of x and y is
(a) 1/2
(b) 2
(c) 1/4
(d) 1
(e) 1/16
Ans: C

6. Frequency of characteristic X-rays depends on
(a) atomic number of target
(b) mass number of target
(c) accelerating p.d applied
(d) kinetic energy of electron
Ans: A

7. In Young's double slit experiment, the width of one of the slits is lowly increased to make it twice the width of the other slit. Then in the interference pattern
(a) the intensity of maxima increase while that of minima decrease
(b) the intensities of both maxima and minima decrease (c) the intensities of both maxima and minima remain the same
(d) the intensity of maxima and decrease while that of minima increase
(e) the intensities of both maxima and minima increase
Ans: E

8. Energy in the Sun is generated mainly by
(a) Fusion of hydrogen atoms
(b) Chemical reaction
(c) Fission of helium atoms
(d) Fusion of radioactive material
Ans: A

9. The meniscus of mercury in a glass tube is
(a) concave
(b) plane
(c) convex
(d) horizontal
Ans: C

10. In the electromagnetic spectrum, the visible spectrum lies between
(a) radio waves and microwaves
(b) infra red and ultraviolet rays
(c) micro waves and infra red spectrum
(d) X- ray and gamma ray spectrum
(e) ultraviolet and X ray spectrum
Ans: B

11. Let the potential energy of electron in hydrogen atom in the ground state be regarded as zero. Then its potential energy in the first excited state will be
(a) 20.4 eV
(b) 13.6 eV
(c) 3.4 eV
(d) 6.8 eV
(e) 10.2 eV
Ans: A

12. If the sun becomes twice as hot
(a) the output of radiated energy will be eight times larger
(b) it will radiate predominantly in the infrared
(c) it will radiate predominantly in the ultraviolet
(d) the output of the radiated energy will be eight times smaller
(e) the frequency spectrum of the radiated energy will not alter
Ans: C

13. What enables the aeroplane to rise in air?
(a) The lifting capacity of a downward jet of air
(b) The lifting capacity of an upward jet of air
(c) The low pressure above the wings
(d) The high pressure above the wings
Ans: C

14. Image formed by a convex lens is virtual and erect when the object is placed
(a) at F
(b) between F and the lens
(c) at 2F
(d) beyond 2F
(e) at infinity
Ans: B

15. A body is projected so as to have a maximum range of 80m. The wrong statement about this motion is/are
(a) its angle of projection is 450
(b) its vertical height is 20m
(c) its energy is zero at the highest point
(d) its path is a parabola
Ans: C

16. A thin circular brass disc has a concentric hole through it so as to make it a washer. It is then heated. Owing to expansion of metal, the diameter of the hole will:
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain the same
Ans: B

17. Hydrogen has
(a) One isotope
(b) Two isotopes
(c) Three isotopes
(d) None of the above
Ans: C

18. Two coherent sources whose intensity ratio is 81:1 produce interference fringes. The ratio of minimum to maximum intensity i.e: Imin : Imax is
(a) 16.25
(b) 9:1
(c) 1:9
(d) 25:16
(d) 5:4
Ans: A

19. A plate has a length 5.00 ± 0.10cm and breadth 2.00 ± 0.01 cm. Then the area of the plate is
(a) 10 ± 0.1 cm2
(b) 10.0 ± 0.01 cm2
(c) 10.0 ± 0.25 cm2
(d) 10.0 ± 0.2 cm2
(e) 10 cm2
Ans: D

20. A lump of ice floats in water in a beaker. When all the ice melts, the level of water in the beaker will
(a) go down
(b) change
(c) rise
(d) remain unchanged
Ans: D

21. The apparent change in frequency due to relative motion between source of sound and a listener is called
(a) Doppler effect
(b) Diffraction
(c) Resonance
(d) Beat phenomenon
Ans: A

22. When light wave travels from one medium into another its
(a) Velocity, frequency and wave length does not change
(b) Velocity does not change
(c) Wavelength does not change
(d) Frequency does not change
Ans: D

23. The gas law PVγ constant is true for:
(a) Adiabatic changes only
(b) Isothermal changes only
(c) Both isothermal and adiabatic changes
Ans: A

24. Which of the following particles is unstable
(a) Proton
(b) Alpha particle
(c) Neutron
(d) Electron
Ans: C

25. The power of combination of a convex lens of focal length 50 cm and concave lens of focal length 40 cm is
(a) +1 diopter
(b) -1 diopter
(c) 0
(d) +0.5 diopter
(e) -0.5 diopter
Ans: E

26. In a n-p-n transistor amplifier, the collector current is 9mA. If 90% of the electrons from the emitter reach the collector, then
(a) α = 0.9; β = 9.0
(b) the base current is10mA
(c) the emitter current is 1mA
(d) α = 9.0; β = 0.9
(e) α = 0.99; β = 99.0
Ans: A

27. A ball hangs from a string inside a train moving along a horizontal straight track. The string is observed to incline towards the rear of the train making a constant small angle with the vertical. It shows that the train is
(a) moving with a uniform acceleration
(b) moving with a uniform velocity
(c) moving with a uniform retardation
(d) moving with an acceleration which is increasing uniformly
(e) at rest
Ans: E

28. The thermocouple cannot act as
(a) Thermometer
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Refrigerator
(d) a.c generator
Ans: D

29. The mean orbital radius of planet Pluto is 6 tera-meters. Then the orbital radius in terms of mega meters is
(a) 6×106
(b) 6×105
(c) 6×109
(d) 6×108
Ans: A

30. A liquid boils when its vapour pressure is
(a) greater than total external pressure on its surface
(b) equal to total external pressure on its surface
(c) equal to atmospheric pressure
(d) less than total external pressure on its surface
Ans: B

31. When a vibrating turning fork is placed on a sonometer, a large sound is heard. This is due to
(a) Forced vibration
(b) Reflection of sound
(c) Beats
(d) Resonance
Ans: A

32. The graph between acceleration and time for the particle in SHM is
(a) Sinusoidal
(b) Parabola
(c) Straight line
(d) Ellipse
Ans: A

33. In a property biased transistor
(a) both depletion layers are equally large
(b) both depletion layers are equally small
(c) emitter-base depletion layer is large but base-collector layer is small
(d) emitter-base depletion layer is small but base-collector depletion layer is large
(e) both depletion layers vanish
Ans: D

34. Maxwell in his famous equation of electromagnetism introduced the concept
(a) AC current
(b) DC current
(c) displacement current
(d) impedance
(e) reactance
Ans: C

35. Water is used in hot water bottles because:
(a) water is not harmful to human body
(b) water has high specific heat
(c) water is easily available
(d) it is not easy to heat water
Ans: B

36. Heavy water is one of the substances used as moderator in reactors. Which of the following is also used as moderator?
(a) Sea water
(b) Cobalt
(c) Graphite
(d) Titanium
Ans: C

37. Out of the following electromagnetic radiations, which has the shortest wavelength?
(a) radio waves
(b) infrared
(c) ultraviolet
(d) visible light
(e) X-rays
Ans: E

38. 92U238 decays successively to form 90Th234, 91Pa234, 92U234, 90Th230 and 88Ra226 then during the reaction the number of particles emitted is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) 1
Ans: B

39. If the velocity of light c, gravitational constant G the Plank's constant h are chosen as fundamental units, the dimension of length L in the new system is
(a) [h1 c1 G-1]
(b) [h1/2 c1/2 G-1/2]
(c) [h1 c-3 G-1]
(d) [h1/2 c-3/2 G1/2]
(e) [h1 c0 G0]
Ans: D

40. A dim star magnitude +14.5 explodes into a nova of magnitude +2. The factor by which the brightness of the star has increased is
(a) 12.5
(b) 102
(c) 103
(d) 104
(e) 105
Ans: E

41. A charged oil drop of mass 9.75×10-15 kg and charge 30×10-16C is suspended in a uniform electric field existing between two parallel plates. The field between the plates, taking g=10ms-2, is
(a) 3.25 v/m
(b) 300 v/m
(c) 325 v/m
(d) 32.5 v/m
(e) 3000 v/m
Ans: D

42. The transformer of an audio amplifier has out put impedance 8000Ω and the speaker has input impedance of 8Ω, the ratio of primary to secondary turns of this transformer connected between the out put of amplifier and to loud speaker should have the ratio
(a) 1000:1
(b) 100:1
(c) 1:32
(d) 32:1
(e) 1:1000
Ans: D

43. A possible fuel for nuclear reactors is
(a) Lead
(b) Plutonium
(c) Berrylium
(d) Zirconium
Ans: B

44. A monoatomic ideal gas initially at 170C is suddenly compressed to one eighth of its original volume. The temperature after compression is
(a) 170C
(b) 1360 C
(c) 8870C
Ans: C

45. For an adiabatic charge
(a) ∆u = 0
(b) ∆Q = ∆w
(c) ∆w = 0
(d) ∆u = −∆w
Ans: D

46. In a closed tube, the frequencies of the overtones are ..... multiplies of the fundamental
(a) Even
(b) Odd
(c) Sub
(d) Integral
Ans: B

47. The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied by the application of mere pressure is called
(a) Critical temperature
(b) Boiling point
(c) Boyle temperature
(d) Freezing point
Ans: A

48. The dimensions of angular momentum are
(a) MLT―1
(b) ML―1T
(c) ML2T―1
(d) MLT―2
Ans: C

49. The acceleration of an object moving in a straight line is equal to the
(a) Slope of the displacement - time graph
(b) Area under velocity - time graph
(c) Area under displacement - time graph
(d) Slope of the velocity - time graph
Ans: D

50. In the photocells
(a) light is converted to heat
(b) electrical energy is converted to light energy
(c) light energy is converted to electrical energy
(d) heat is converted to light
Ans: C 

Model Questions for Engineering Entrance Tests Part - 2
( Physics) 

51. A train, 300 m long is traveling with a velocity of 144 km/hr. It passes over a bridge in 120 seconds. Then the length of the bridge is
a. 4.5 km
b. 2.25 km
c. 4.5 m
d. 2.25 m
Ans: A

52. Water has maximum density at
a. 140C
b. 100C
c. 0.40C
d. 40C
Ans: D

53. The magnifying power of a Galilean telescope in normal setting is 15 and its length is 112 cm. The focal length of its eye piece lens
a. 16 cm
b. 119 cm
c. 8 cm
d. 105 cm
Ans: C

54. A bimetallic element is a device in which two thin flat strips of different metals are rivetted together. Such a device can only be used as:
a. Thermister
b. Thermionic
c. Thermocouple
d. Thermostat
Ans: D

55. For a given kinetic energy the smallest de Broglie wavelength is for
a. proton
b. neutron
c. α-particles
d. electron
Ans: C

56. Young's interference experiment is performed with red light of wavelength 7000Ã… and the fringes formed at a distance of one metre has width β. Now red light is replaced by a light of wavelength 4000Ã…. In order that the fringes should again have the same band width β, the screen should be kept at a distance of
a. 7/3m
b. 4/7m
c. 7/4m
d. 3/7m
Ans: C

57. Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. Now one of them is rotated through a angle of 450. The percentage of incident light now transmitted through the system is
a. 15%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 50%
Ans: C

58. Two capacitors 10 μF and 25 μF are charged to a potential of 100 V each. They are connected in parallel. The potential across them are
a. 100 V each
b. 200 V each
c. 50 V each
d. 80 V and 120 V
Ans: A

59. The equation of a harmonic wave is given by y = 0.05 sin (2000t − 8x)m. The maximum particle velocity of the particle in the wave is (in proper units)
a. 100
b. 10
c. 2000
d. 100
Ans: A

60. For a heat engine the temperature of the source is 1270C. To have 60% efficiency the temperature of the sink is
a. 1130C
b. −1130C
c. −2730C
d. 1600C
Ans: B

61. The temperature of a gas is produced by:
a. The kinetic energy of the molecules
b. The repulsive forces between the molecules
c. The potential energy of the molecules
d. The attractive force between the molecules
Ans: A

62. Energy generation in star is mainly due to
a. Fission of heavy nuclei
b. Chemical reactions
c. Fusion of heavy nuclei
d. Fusion of light nuclei
Ans: D

63. Using a convex lens a clear image of a candle flame is produced on a screen. How many other clear images can be received on this screen if only the lens is to be shifted?
a. Two more
b. A large number
c. Only one more
d. None
Ans: C

64. When a torque acting upon the system is zero. Which of the following will be constant
a. Angular momentum
b. Force
c. Linear momentum
d. Linear impulse
Ans: A

65. A body is perfectly elastic if
a. It can be easily deformed
b. It can be easily compressed
c. It can readily drawn into a wire
d. It recovers its original shape or volume on the removal of the deforming forces
Ans: D

66. If the units of length and force be each increased four times, the units of energy is increased
a. 16 times
b. 8 times
c. 4 times
d. 32 times
Ans: A

67. Compressed air coming out of a punctured ball becomes cooler because of
a. isothermal expansion
b. isothermal compression
c. adiabatic expansion
d. adiabatic compression
Ans: C

68. Two conducting spheres of radii 2cm and 4cm are charged. They are now kept in constant and separated. The ratio of their potential is
a. zero
b. 2:1
c. 1:1
d. 1:2
Ans: C

69. In a series LCR circuit, at resonant frequency
a. the impedance is maximum
b. the current and voltage are in phase
c. current is minimum
d. the impedance and current are maximum
Ans: B

70. In the steady state of temperature for a body, the rate of flow of heat across it depends upon:
a. Only its thermal conductivity
b. Only its thermal capacity
c. Neither on its thermal capacity nor its thermal conductivity
d. Both its thermal capacity and its thermal conductivity
Ans: A

71. The process of fission, splitting of a heavy nucleus into smaller nuclei with emission of energy etc, occurs primarily in
a. The Sun
b. Chemical reactions
c. Nuclear reactor
d. The hydrogen bomb
Ans: C

72. A storage cell of emf 10 V and internal resistance 0.1Ω, is charged with 5 amps. Then the terminal voltage is
a. 10 V
b. 9.5 V
c. 10.5 V
d. 9.9 V
Ans: C

73. On which natural phenomenon is the unit of time based?
a. Diurnal motion of the earth
b. Rotation of the sun
c. The revolution of the moon
d. Rotation of the moon
Ans: A

74. What causes 'Reverberation'?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Interference
d. Diffraction
Ans: A

75. A body of mass m is resting on an inclined plane which makes an angle θ with the horizontal. As θ increases the normal reaction of the plane
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains unaltered
Ans: A

76. Two unlike parallel forces P and 2P act at points A and B. Their resultant acts at a point
a. A
b. between A and B
c. on AB produced
d. on BA produced
Ans: C

77. When two turning forks A and B are sounded together four beats per second are heard. If the frequency of A is 256 Hz, find that of B. On loading the fork B, the number of beats decreases.
a. 252 Hz
b. 264 Hz
c. 248 Hz
d. 260 Hz
Ans: D

78. Natural magnetism of a magnetic material is explained due to
a. spin of electron
b. association with earth magnetic field
c. nucleus
d. spin and rotation of electron
Ans: D

79. The presence of dissolved impurities in water:
a. Does not affect its boiling point
b. Lowers its boiling point
c. Raises its boiling point
d. Does not let water boil
Ans: C

80. A proton has a mass of 1.67×10-27 kg and charge of 1.6×10-19 C. If the proton be accelerated through a potential difference of one million volts, then the KE is
a. 1.6×10-13 J
b. 1.6×10-15 J
c. 1.67×10-13 J
d. 1.67×10-15 J
Ans: A

81. When a light is refracted, which of the following does not change?
a. Velocity
b. Amplitude
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength
Ans: C

82. 540 gm of ice at 00C is mixed with 540 gm of water at 800C. The final temperature of the mixture in 0C will be
a. 20
b. 0
c. 40
d. 80
Ans: B

83. The process in which nuclei join to form a new nucleus and liberate heat is known as
a. Fusion
b. Fission
c. Electrolysis
d. Catalysis
Ans: A

84. Speed of the gas ejected from a rocket is 1000ms-1 and the force experienced as a result is 50 N. The mass of gas escaping per second is
a. 5 g
b. 200 g
c. 50 g
d. cannot determined
Ans: C

85. A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4m having a resistance 10Ω. It is connected to a cell of emf 2V. The potential difference per unit length of the wire will be
a. 2 V/m
b. 5 V/m
c. 0.5 V/m
d. 10 V/m
Ans: C

86. The magnetic potential at any point on the equatorial magnet is
a. Infinite
b. Zero
c. Positive
d. Finite
Ans: B

87. A ball hangs from a string inside a train moving along a horizontal track. The string is observed to incline towards the front of the train making a small angle with the vertical. It shows that the train is
a. Moving with uniform acceleration
b. Moving with constant retardation
c. Moving with uniform velocity
d. At rest
Ans: B

88. Speed of flow of viscous liquid through a capillary tube of radius r under constant pressure head is proportional to
a. r
b. r2
c. r4
d. r−1
Ans: B

89. At the temperature of inversion, the emf in a thermocouple is
a. minimum
b. maximum
c. half the maximum value
d. zero
Ans: D

90. A number of images of a candle flame can be seen in a thick mirror. The brightest image is:
a. The last one
b. The first one
c. The second one
d. The third one
Ans: C

91. Cathode rays are
a. A stream of positive charges
b. A stream of negative charges
c. A stream of neutral particles
d. Electromagnetic waves
Ans: B

92. The dimension of entropy is
a. M0L−1T0K
b. ML2T−2K−1
c. M0L−2T0K2
d. MLT−2K
Ans: B

93. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 will simply act as a glass slab when kept in liquid of refractive index
a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 2
d. √2
Ans: B

94. Cyclotron is used for accelerating
a. Protons
b. Lead
c. Atoms
d. Molecules
Ans: A

95. Mirage is the phenomenon due to
a. Total internal reflection
b. Interference of light
c. Polarization of light
d. Diffraction of light
Ans: A

96. Short sight is due to
a. The eye-ball being too short for the eye lens
b. A defect in the retina
c. The eye-ball being too long for the eye lens
d. A defect in the cornea
Ans: C

97. Radius of first orbit of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 0.53Ã…. Radius of the third orbit is
a. 2.12Ã…
b. 0.18Ã…
c. 4.77Ã…
d. 1.06Ã…
Ans: C

98. In a working nuclear reactor, cadmium rods are used to
a. Absorb all neutrons
b. Absorb some neutrons
c. Speed up neutrons
d. Slow down neutrons
Ans: B

99. A bullet fired from a gun has a force on it given by F=400−8×104 t, such that force becomes zero as soon as the bullet leaves the barrel of the gun. The impulse imparted to the bullet
a. 0.1 NS
b. 2 NS
c. 1 NS
d. zero
Ans: C

100. In a P-type semiconductor the acceptor impurity level are a little
a. below the valance band
b. above the conductor band
c. above the valence band
d. below the conduction band
Ans: C 

Model Questions for Engineering Entrance Tests Part - 3
( Physics) 

101. The material used for making a permanent magnet is
a. Copper
b. Brass
c. Iron
d. Steel
Ans: D

102. A monoatomic ideal gas initially at 170C is suddenly compressed to one eighth of its original volume. The temperature after compression is
a. 170C
b. 8870C
c. 1360C
d. none of the above
Ans: B

103. The separation between an object and screen is 120cm. You are given a convex lens of focal length 25cm taking the position object as origin location of lens to form a distinct image on the screen is
a. 30 & 90 cm
b. 40 & 80 cm
c. 35.5 & 84.5 cm
d. 45 & 75 cm
Ans: C

104. When the fast moving cathode ray particles are suddenly stopped by a solid target of high melting point
a. X- rays are produced
b. β- are produced
c. α- are produced
d. Positive rays are produced
Ans: D

105. The distance between a town and a factory is 30km. A man started to walk from the factory to the town at 6.30 am. While a cyclist left the town for the factory at 6.40 am riding at a speed of 18 km/hr. The man met the cyclist after walking 6 km. The time at which they met is
a. 7.30 am
b. 8.00 am
c. 8.10 am
d. 8.30 am
Ans: B

106. Static electricity can be produced by
a. Chemical reaction
b. Friction
c. Induction
d. Both by (b) & (c)
Ans: D

107. A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having the same mass and same same diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the top of an inclined plane. Which will reach the bottom first
a. The solid cylinder
b. The hollow cylinder
c. Both will reach the bottom together
d. The one having greater density
Ans: A

108. The equation for a stationary wave is given by y = cosx sint. The wave length is (where x and y are in cm)
a. 2π cm
b. π/2 cm
c. 4π cm
d. π cm
Ans: A

109. The ratio of the magnetic induction to the magnetizing field is called
a. Magnetic potential
b. Hysteresis
c. Susceptibility
d. Permeability
Ans: D

110. The moment of inertia of a body about an axis is I, and its angular acceleration is α. Then I α is equal to
a. Kinetic energy
b. The angular momentum
c. The torque
d. Momentum
Ans: C

111. The objective of a microscope forms
a. virtual and enlarged image
b. virtual and diminished image
c. real and enlarged image
d. real and diminished image
Ans: C

112. The ratio of the rise in temperature of a gas when compared adiabatically to that when compressed isothermally to the same extent is
a. Depends on the gas
b. More than 1
c. Less than 1
d. Equal to 1
Ans: B

113. A cell of emf 12 volt connected across a resistor R=7Ω draws a current of 1.5A. The internal resistance of the cell is
a. 0.5Ω
b. 1Ω
c. 1.5Ω
d. zero
Ans: B

114. Sound waves in air are:
a. longitudinal
b. transverse
c. longitudinal as well as transverse
Ans: A

115. The moment of momentum is called
a. Couple
b. Impulse
c. Angular momentum
d. Torque
Ans: C

116. A biconvex lens of glass (refractive index = 1.5) has faces of radii 20 cm each. Its focal length in air is
a. 30 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 21 cm
d. 3 cm
Ans: B

117. A cable is shortened to half its length. The maximum load it can support without exceeding its elastic limit
a. Is trebled
b. Is doubled
c. Is halved
d. Does not change
Ans: D

118. Wavelength of electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 KHz
a. 5×106 m
b. 3×103 m
c. 3×108 m
d. 4×106 m
Ans: B

119. Current flowing in a copper voltmeter is 0.4 A. The number of Cu++ ions deposited at the cathode per minute is
a. 1.5×1020
b. 3×1020
c. 4.5×1019
d. 0.75×1020
Ans: D

120. When water is filled in an empty vessel, its frequency
a. remains the same
b. decreases
c. increases
d. either increases or decreases
Ans: C

121. The slopes of isothermal and adiabatic curves are related as
a. Adiabatic curve slope = ½ × Isothermal curve slope
b. Isothermal curve slope = Adiabatic curve slope
c. Isothermal curve slope = γ × Adiabatic curve slope
d. Isothermal curve slope = γ × Isothermal curve slope
Ans: D

122. A body rotating with an angular velocity 20 rad/s comes to rest in 4 seconds. The angle turned in last second of its motion is
a. 2.50
b. 5 rad
c. 200
d. 2.5 rad
Ans: D

123. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is proportional to
a. square of the velocity of the molecules
b. the mean velocity of the molecules
c. the mean square velocity of the molecules
d. the root mean square velocity of the molecules
Ans: C

124. The refractive index is the least for
a. Green light
b. Blue light
c. Red light
d. Yellow light
Ans: C

125. Compressed air in the tube of a wheel of a cycle at a normal temperature suddenly starts coming out from a puncture. The air inside:
a. starts becoming cooler
b. may become hotter or cooler depending upon the amount of water vapour present
c. starts becoming hotter
d. remains at the same temperature.
Ans: A

126. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point its angular momentum is directed along
a. The radius
b. The tangent to orbit
c. Line at an angle of 450 to the plane of rotation
d. The axis of rotation
Ans: D

127. Two unequal resistors are connected in parallel in a circuit. Then
a. The current is the same through both of them
b. Voltage drop is the same across them
c. There will be larger potential drop across them
d. Larger current flows through the larger resistance
Ans: B

128. When a body is positively charged it means that
a. Some protons have been added to it
b. Some electrons have been removed from it
c. Some protons have been removed from it
d. Some electrons have been added to it
Ans: B

129. If the sound in hydrogen is v, then in a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 5:1 by volumes, the speed of sound at same temperature and pressure is
a. (6.5)½ v
b. (5/6)½ v
c. (7/3)½ v
d. (7/3)½ v
Ans: D

130. A motor car tyre is pumped to 2 atmospheres at 150C when it bursts. Assume adiabatic expansion. The drop in temperature of air is: (for air γ = 1.4)
a. -560C
b. 410C
c. 560C
d. none of the above
Ans: C

131. A flask containing air at 270C at atmospheric pressure is corked up. A pressure of 2.5 atmosphere inside the flask would force the cork out. The temperature at which it will happen is
a. 67.50C
b. 750K
c. 5770C
d. 7500C
Ans: B

132. Two tuning forks of frequencies 252 Hz & 256 Hz sounded together produce beats. The frequency of resultant wave is
a. 252 Hz
b. 4 Hz
c. 254 Hz
d. 258 Hz
Ans: C

133. The number of images formed by the mirrors inclined at 450 of an object between them is
a. Infinite
b. Seven
c. One
d. Four
Ans: B

134. Out of the following the vector quantity is
a. electric charge
b. current
c. potential
d. electric field intensity
Ans: D

135. Dry air (γ = 1.5) at atmospheric pressure is suddenly compressed to one fourth of its original volume. The pressure will be
a. 3 atmosphere
b. 6 atmosphere
c. 8 atmosphere
d. 10 atmosphere
Ans: C

136. Two thermometers X and Y have ice points marked at 150 and 250 and steam points marked as 750 and 1250 respectively. When thermometer X measures the temperature of a bath as 600 on it, Y would measure the same temperature as
a. 600
b. 750
c. 1000
d. 1050
Ans: C

137. In the above question if the volume after compression is half the original volume, the final pressure after a long time is
a. greater than twice the initial pressure
b. equal to twice the initial pressure
c. equal to the initial pressure
d. equal to half of the initial pressure
Ans: B

138. Air in a cylinder is suddenly compressed by a piston, which is then maintained at the same position with the passage of time
a. the pressure decreases
b. the pressure increases
c. the pressure remains the same
d. the pressure may increase or decrease
Ans: A

139. An adiabatic process, at constant
a. Heat
b. Temperature
c. Pressure
d. Temperature and Pressure
Ans: A

140. A body of mass 2kg is moving along a horizontal surface. A force of 4N is needed to make it move with constant velocity 10 m/s along a straight line. If 4N force is suddenly reserved while the body is in motion
a. It will come to rest with a retardation of 4 m/s2
b. It will come to rest with a retardation of 4 m/s2 and then move with constant velocity in the opposite direction
c. It will not move at all
d. It will come to rest with a retardation of 2 m/s2
Ans: A

141. The electric potential at any point inside a charged hollow sphere
a. is the same
b. is zero
c. increases with distance from the centre
d. decreases as the distance from the centre increases
Ans: A

142. Number of electrons passing through a conductor per second to constitute a current of 1 micro ampere is
a. 6.25 × 1018
b. 6.25 × 1015
c. 6.25 × 1012
d. 1.6 × 10-19
Ans: C

143. Ω-m is the unit of
a. Resistance
b. Resistivity
c. Conductivity
d. Conductance
Ans: B

144. The quality of a tone:
a. decreases with loudness
b. varies directly as pitch
c. depend upon the overtones present
d. varies inversely as the amplitude
Ans: C

145. The isothermal bulk modulus of a perfect gas at atmospheric pressure is
a. 1.03×105 N/m2
b. 1.03×106 N/m2
c. 1.03×1010 N/m2
d. 1.03×1111 N/m2
Ans: A

146. The work done in adiabatic change in a gas depends on
a. Change in pressure
b. Change in volume
c. Change in temperature
d. None
Ans: B

147. A resistor R1, dissipates the power p when connected to a certain generator. If a resistance R2 is put in series with R1, the power dissipated by R1
a. increases
b. decreases
c. may increase or decrease
d. remains the same
Ans: B

148. If the diameter of closed tube is D, the value of end correction is
a. 0.15D
b. 0.6D
c. 1.2 D
d. 0.3D
Ans: D

149. Two thin lenses whose powers are +2D and -4D respectively. The power of the combination is
a. -2D
b. -4D
c. +4D
d. +2D
Ans: A

150. Gamma rays are
a. Streams of protons
b. Streams of electrons
c. Electromagnetic waves of long wavelengths
d. Electromagnetic waves of short wavelengths
Ans: D 

Model Questions for Engineering Entrance Tests Part - 4
( Physics) 

151. Electrons revolve in a circle with a frequency of 5 × 1014 Hz. The current due to this is
a. 5×1014 A
b. 8×10-5A
c. 3.2×10-31 A
d. zero
Ans: B

152. If the error in measurement of length and time is 2% the percentage error in velocity is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
Ans: C

153. At Mach number 2, the speed of an aeroplane will be:
a. half the speed of sound
b. double the speed of sound
c. four times the speed of sound
d. √2 times the speed of sound
Ans: B

154. In a stationary wave in air the variation of pressure at nodes is
a. maximum
b. minimum
c. three times the variation due to one wave alone
d. none of these
Ans: A

155. Out of the following the one without much variation of resistance with temperature is
a. copper
b. silicon
c. constantan
d. nichrome
Ans: C

156. A block has dimensions 10×8×4 cm. The ratio between maximum resistance to minimum resistance formed by the block is
a. 5:2
b. 25:4
c. 5:4
d. 1:1
Ans: B

157. The weight of an aeroplane in flight is balanced by:
a. the upthrust of air displaced
b. difference of pressure between the upper and lower surfaces of the wings created by he difference of speeds of air on the surfaces
c. vertical component of the thrust created by air currents striking the lower surface of the wings
d. force due to the reaction of gases ejected by the revolving propeller
Ans: B

158. The number which has order of magnitude 3 is
a. 5.01
b. 5000
c. 5001
d. 5.00
Ans: B

159. The weight of lead of R.D = 11 which will balance 8gm of iron of R.D = 8, when both are immersed in water is
a. 11 gm
b. 8 gm
c. 7.7 gm
d. 8.8 gm
Ans: C

160. Two copper wires have their lengths in the ratio 1:2 and radius 2:1. The ratio between their specific resistances is
a. 8:1
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 1:1
Ans: D

161. The physical quantity which remains unchanged when a sound wave travels from one medium to another
a. speed
b. wavelength
c. amplitude
d. frequency
Ans: D

162. A bulb is marked 100 W, 250 V. Then
a. it always liberates 100J of light
b. it always draws 0.4 A current
c. its resistance is 625Ω
d. all the above are correct
Ans: C

163. 27 small liquid drops with radius 1 mm each are combined to form a single drop. The radius of this large drop is
a. 1 mm
b. 27 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 1.5 mm
Ans: C

164. A river is 120m wide and flows at a speed of 1 m/s. Two persons A and B can swim at 3 m/s. The approximate difference in time taken by them to cross the river if A crosses through shortest path and B in shortest time is
a. 1 s
b. 2 s
c. 3 s
d. 4 s
Ans: B

165. The tension in a sonometer wire is increased four times. The fundamental frequency becomes
a. 8 times
b. 2 times
c. 16 times
d. 10 times
Ans: B

166. The melting point of substances that contract on melting
a. decreases with increase in pressure
b. increases with increase in pressure
c. decreases at first and then increases with increase in pressure
d. is independent of pressure
Ans: A

167. A person travels along a straight road for the first half length with a velocity 40 m/s and the second half length with a velocity 60 m/s. The average velocity is given by
a. 0
b. 50 m/s
c. 48 m/s
d. 54 m/s
Ans: C

168. A spring stretched to a distance x has a PE=U. The additional energy required to stretch to a distance 2x is
a. U
b. 2U
c. 3U
d. 4U
Ans: C

169. The weight of a body in air is W. When it floats in water its weight is
a. W
b. W/2
c. zero
d. W/4
Ans: C

170. A cell is of emf 12 volts and internal resistance 2Ω. When it is short circuited the current is
a. zero
b. infinity
c. 12A
d. 6A
Ans: D

171. Two spheres of the same size are made of the same metal, but one is hollow ad the other is solid. They are heated to the same temperature:
a. both spheres will expand equally
b. the solid sphere will expand more than the hollow one
c. the solid sphere will expand but the hollow one will not
d. the hollow sphere will expand more than the solid one
Ans: A

172. The frequency of transverse vibration of a stretched string is 400 per second. If the tension is increased 4 times, its frequency will be:
a. 1600 per second
b. 100 per second
c. 200 per second
d. 800 per second
Ans: D

173. The best conductor of electric current is
a. silver
b. copper
c. aluminium
d. nichrome
Ans: A

174. A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen is taken in a container at constant temperature. The kinetic energy per molecule is
a. greater than oxygen
b. greater for hydrogen
c. same for both the gases
d. zero
Ans: C

175. Two vibrating systems are said to be in resonance if
a. their amplitudes are equal
b. their frequencies are equal
c. their damping factors are equal
d. their temperatures are the same
Ans: B

176. A boy throws an apple vertically up inside a train which is accelerating along a straight line. The apple
a. falls behind him
b. falls ahead him
c. returns straight to his hands
d. follows a parabolic path as observed by the boy
Ans: A

177. A stone projected with a velocity 100 m/s reaches the highest point in 5s. The angle of projection is
a. 00
b. 300
c. 450
d. 600
Ans: B

178. The percentage decrease in acceleration due to gravity when a body is taken to a height 32 km from the surface of the earth
a. 0%
b. 1%
c. 2%
d. 4%
Ans: B

179. When the area of cross section of a wire is halved and tension is doubled, the frequency becomes
a. same
b. two times
c. three times
d. four times
Ans: B

180. An instrument used for measuring the emf of a cell is
a. tacho meter
b. ammeter
c. metre bridge
d. volt meter
Ans: D

181. Two simple harmonic motions of same amplitude, same frequency and a phase difference of π results in the displacement of the particle along a
a. ellipse
b. circle
c. figure of eight
d. straight line
Ans: A

182. The dimensions of pressure gradient is
a. ML-2T-2
b. ML-2T-1
c. ML-1T-1
d. ML0T-2
Ans: C

183. A liquid shows capillary rise. Then its angle of contact is
a. acute
b. obtuse
c. 900
d. 00
Ans: A

184. Four equal resistances are connected to form a square. The effective resistance between any two diagonal points is 4Ω. The resistance of each side is
a. 4Ω
b. 8Ω
c. 2Ω
d. 16Ω
Ans: A

185. The following is an incorrect statement based on the first law of thermodynamics
a. The energy of an isolated system remains constant
b. The heat transfer equals the work plus the energy change
c. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done
d. The net heat transfer equals the net work done for a cycle
Ans: C

186. When three bulbs A, B and C in the resistance ratio 1:2:3 are used separately in a house connection, the brightness is
a. largest for C
b. largest for B
c. largest for A
d. same for A, B and C
Ans: C

187. In which medium is the speed of sound maximum?
a. air
b. water
c. iron
d. interstellar space
Ans: C

188. Laplace corrected Newton's formula of velocity of sound because sound waves in air
a. Transverse
b. Propagate adiabatically
c. are longitudinal
d. propagate isothermally
Ans: B

189. A wire when connected across a source of emf liberates or dissipates 60J/s. When it is stretched to double its length, the heat liberated per second is
a. 30 J
b. 120 J
c. 15 J
d. 240 J
Ans: C

190. The excess of pressure inside one soap bubble is three times that inside a second soap bubble. Their volume are in the ratio
a. 1:81
b. 1:27
c. 1:3
d. 1:9
Ans: B

191. If the momentum of a body is increased by 60% its KE will be increased by
a. 50%
b. 100%
c. 125%
d. 156%
Ans: D

192. The order of (2)30 is approximately
a. 105
b. 109
c. 1015
d. 1020
Ans: B

193. A particle is thrown upward with a certain initial speed. It reaches the maximum height and subsequently returns back to the initial point. Through out its motion, the kinematical quantity which remains constant is
a. displacement
b. speed
c. velocity
d. acceleration
Ans: D

194. A man moves on a cycle horizontally with a velocity 4 km/hr. The rain is falling vertically with a velocity 3 km/hr. The direction in which he should hold the umbrella is
a. 370 with the vertical
b. 530 with the vertical
c. vertically
d. 450 with the vertical
Ans: B

195. The ratio of angular speeds of seconds hand and minutes hand of a watch is
a. 60:1
b. 1:60
c. 30:1
d. 1:30
Ans: A

196. The product of moment of inertia (M.I) and angular acceleration is
a. force
b. torque
c. work
d. angular momentum
Ans: B

197. A wire is drawn so that its radius becomes halved. Its new resistance
a. increases to four times
b. decreases to four times
c. increases to 16 times
d. decreases to 16 times
Ans: C

198. The difference between Cp and Cv is equal to the universal gas constant when
a. one gram of gas is heated
b. any amount of gas is heated
c. one molecule of gas is heated
d. one gram molecule is heated
Ans: D

199. Kirchoff's first law is related to
a. conservation of energy
b. conservation of momentum
c. conservation of angular momentum
d. conservation of charge
Ans: D

200. A wound watch spring
a. has no energy stored in it
b. has KE stored in it
c. has mechanical PE stored in it
d. has electrical energy stored in it
Ans: C 

Model Questions for Engineering Entrance Tests Part - 5
( Physics) 

201. A particle is thrown upward with a certain initial speed. It reaches the maximum height and subsequently returns back to the initial point. Through out its motion, the kinematical quantity which remains constant is
a. displacement
b. speed
c. velocity
d. acceleration
Ans: D

202. The percentage change in tension necessary in a sonometer of fixed length to produce a note one octave higher than before is
a. 25%
b. 300%
c. 400%
d. 50%
Ans: B

203. Fraunhoffer lines are observed in the spectrum of
a. hydrogen discharge tube
b. a carbon arc
c. the sun
d. sodium vapour lamp
Ans: C

204. A stone of mass of 10 kg is attracted by the earth with a force of
a. 1000 N
b. 98 N
c. 9800 N
d. 980 N
Ans: B

205. The ratio of angular speeds of seconds hand and minutes hand of a watch is
a. 60:1
b. 1:60
c. 30:1
d. 1:30
Ans: A

206. Fermi is equal to
a. 10-15 m
b. 10-14 m
c. 10-17 m
d. 10-12 m
Ans: A

207. For a particular angle of projection 150 the horizontal range was found to be R. The other angle of projection which gives the same horizontal range is
a. 750
b. 1050
c. 450
d. 200
Ans: A

208. The number of degrees of freedom of a diatomic gas is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Ans: D

209. The phenomenon of Brownian movement may be taken as evidence of
a. kinetic theory of matter
b. corpuscular theory of light
c. electromagnetic theory of radiation
d. capillarity
Ans: A

210. Mirages are observed in deserts due to the phenomenon of
a. interference of light
b. total reflection of light
c. scattering of light
d. double refraction of light
Ans: B

211. Of the following the self adjusting force is
a. Sliding friction
b. Static friction
c. Dynamic friction
d. Limiting friction
Ans: A

212. The velocity of rain drop attains a steady value because of
a. viscous force exerted by air
b. surface tension effects
c. air currents in the atmosphere
d. up thrust of air
Ans: A

213. One kg of water is evaporated from 6kg of sea water containing 4% salt. The percentage of alt in the remaining solution will be
a. 1%
b. 3.33%
c. 4%
d. 4.8%
Ans: D

214. It has been postulated that there may be some particles moving with speed greater than speed of light. Such particles have been named as
a. Mesons
b. Pions
c. Tachyons
d. Photons
Ans: C

215. The earth magnetic field always has a vertical component except at the
a. magnetic equator
b. magnetic poles
c. geographical north pole
d. geographical south pole
Ans: A

216. After one α emission two β emissions
a. mass number reduces by 2
b. atomic number remains unchanged
c. mass number reduces by 6
d. (b) & (c) are correct
Ans: D

217. The energy of a wound spring is
a. chemical
b. potential
c. kinetic
d. heat
Ans: B

218. A body falling vertically downward under gravity breaks into two parts of unequal masses. The centre of mass of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally towards
a. heavier piece
b. lighter piece
c. does not shift horizontally
d. depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking
Ans: C

219. 24 cells each of internal resistance 0.5Ω are to be used to send a maximum current through an external resistance of 3Ω. The cell should be arranged as
a. all in parallel
b. all in series
c. 2 rows of 12 cells each
d. rows of 6 cells each
Ans: C

220. The emf of a Daniel cell is
a. 0.56 V
b. 1.08V
c. 2.56 V
d. 3.12 V
Ans: B

221. For a body which is moving along with lift with uniform velocity upwards
a. It's weight decreases
b. It's weight increases
c. It's weight remains the same
d. may decrease or increase depending on magnitude of velocity
Ans: C

222. Two waves of wavelength 50cm and 51 cm produces 12 beats per second. The velocity of wave is
a. 306 m/s
b. 331 m/s
c. 340 m/s
d. 375 m/s
Ans: A

223. When there is no external force, the shape of a small liquid drop is determined by
a. surface tension of the liquid
b. density of the liquid
c. viscosity of air
d. temperature if air
Ans: A

224. Beats are produced by two waves y1 = a sin 2000πt and y2 = a sin2008 πt. The number of beats heard per second is
a. 0
b. 4
c. 8
d. 8π
Ans: B

225. Rainbow is formed due to
a. scattering and total internal reflection
b. scattering and diffraction
c. dispersion and total internal reflection
d. dispersion and reflection
Ans: C

226. In the stable equilibrium position, body has
a. minimum kinetic energy
b. minimum potential energy
c. neither maximum nor minimum
d. maximum potential energy
Ans: B

227. A Plano-convex lens is made of refractive index 1.6. The radius curvature of curved surface is 60cm. The focal length of the lens is
a. 5 cm
b. 100 cm
c. 200 cm
d. 500 cm
Ans: B

228. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 270C is to have 25% efficiency. It must take heat at
a. 1270C
b. 2270C
c. 3270C
d. 6730C
Ans: A

229. If height of a man is 2m then minimum height of a plane mirror in which he can have his full the image is
a. 1/4m
b. 1/2m
c. 1m
d. 3/4m
Ans: C

230. A body starts from rest and covers a distance of 10m in first second. The distance covered by it in 4 seconds will be
a. 80m
b. 100m
c. 160m
d. 200m
Ans: C

231. A frame which is moving with constant angular velocity is
a. Inertial frame
b. Non inertial frame
c. Frame of rest
d. Newtonian frame
Ans: B

232. The unit of acceleration in SI is
a. km/hr
b. m/s2
c. cm/s
d. mph
Ans: B

233. The diameters of two planets are in the ratio of 4:1 and their mean densities in the ratio of 1:2. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of two planets will be in the ratio
a. 4:1
b. 1:8
c. 1:2
d. 2:1
Ans: D

234. 540g of ice at 00C is mixed with with 540g of water at 800C. The final temperature of the mixture is
a. 00C
b. 400C
c. 800C
d. more than 800C
Ans: A

235. A particle initially at rest is having uniformly accelerated motion. Its velocity is plotted against displacement. The graph obtained will be
a. a straight line
b. a straight line with a negative slope
c. a parabola
d. an ellipse
Ans: C

236. Light of wave length 4000Ã… is incident on a metal plate whose work function is 2eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons would be
a. 2eV
b. 1.5eV
c. 1.1eV
d. 0.5eV
Ans: C

237. In a junction diode holes are due to
a. proton
b. neutrons
c. missing electrons
d. extra electrons
Ans: C

238. A cyclist is moving in a circular path with a uniform speed of 200 cm/s. The change in velocity after half revolution is
a. zero
b. 200 cm/s
c. 4 m/s
d. 300 cm/s
Ans: C

239. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth, the acceleration due to gravity on the sun is
a. 24 g
b. 16 g
c. 32 g
d. 28 g
Ans: D

240. The unit of impulse in SI is
a. Newton-second
b. Dyne
c. Pound force
d. Watt
Ans: A

241. If momentum of a body becomes 3 times, kinetic energy becomes
a. 3 times
b. 6 times
c. 9 times
d. 27 times
Ans: C

242. The transfer ratio β of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor when used in the common emitter configuration is 1KΩ. The peak value of the collector ac current for an input voltage 0.01V peak is
a. 100 μA
b. 0.01mA
c. 500 μA
d. 50 μA
Ans: C

243. A bomb of mass 9kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 3kg and 6kg. The velocity of mass 3kg is 16m/s. The KE of mass 6kg in joule is
a. 96
b. 192
c. 384
d. 768
Ans: B

244. The galaxy to which our solar system belongs is called
a. milky way
b. radio galaxy
c. solar galaxy
d. dwarf galaxy
Ans: A

245. A ball is projected from the top of a tower at an angle 600 with the horizontal. What happens to the horizontal component of its velocity?
a. increases continuously
b. decreases continuously
c. remains unchanged
d. first decreases and then increases
Ans: C

246. The unit of pressure in SI is
a. Pascal
b. Pounds per square inch
c. Newton per cm2
d. Watt
Ans: A

247. A body is having uniform circular motion. A quantity that which does not remain constant is
a. angular velocity
b. velocity
c. speed
d. kinetic energy
Ans: B

248. A 200W and 100W bulbs both meant for operation at 220V are connected in parallel. Then the power consumed by them when 220V is applied will be
a. 66W
b. 33W
c. 100W
d. 300W
Ans: D

249. Time of flight of a projectile projected up with a velocity of 10m/s at an angle 300 with the horizontal is (g=10 m/s2)
a. 1/2 s
b. 1 s
c. 2 s
d. 3s
Ans: B

250. When light wave suffers reflection at the interference from air to glass, the change in phase of the reflected wave is equal to
a. 0
b. π/4
c. 2π
d. π
Ans: D 

Model Questions for Engineering Entrance Tests Part - 6
( Physics) 

251. A car covers the first half of the distance between two places at a speed of 40 km/hr and the second half at 60 km/hr. Then the average speed of the car is
a. 50 km/hr
b. 48 km/hr
c. 100 km/hr
d. 55 km/hr
Ans: B

252. What will happen if a stream of air is blown through a tube under one of the pans of a physical balance in equilibrium?
a. the pan will go up
b. the pan will go down
c. the pan will remain unaffected
d. the pan may go up or down depending upon the metal of which the pan is made
Ans: B

253. A body moves a distance of 10m along a straight line under the action of a force of 5N. If the work done is 25J, the angle which the force makes with the direction of motion of the body is
a. 00
b. 300
c. 600
d. 900
Ans: C

254. A body travels three equal distances with speeds 10 m/s, 20 m/s and 30 m/s respectively. The average speed will be
a. 20 m/s
b. 16.36 m/s
c. 31.20 m/s
d. 25.12 m/s
Ans: B

255. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that:
a. the train may not fall down inwards
b. the weight of the train may be reduced
c. necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of the normal reaction due to the track
d. no frictional force may be produced between the wheels and the track
Ans: C

256. The measured mass and volume of a body are 22.42gm and 4.7 cm2 respectively with possible error 0.01gm and 0.1 cm3.
The maximum error in density is
a. 0.2%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 10%
Ans: B

257. The unit of energy is
a. J/S
b. Watt × Day
c. Kilowatt
d. g. cm/s2
Ans: B

258. The centre of mass of a right circular cone of height h is
a. on the axis at a distance h/4 from the base of the cone
b. on the axis at a distance h/3 from the base of the cone
c. on the axis at a distance h/2 from the base of the cone
d. on the base of the cone at its distance
Ans: A

259. A uniform metre scale initially in the vertical direction is turned through 450 with bottom end fixed. The percentage fall in its
potential energy
a. 29%
b. 42%
c. 25%
d. 33%
Ans: A

260. The density of a cube is measured by measuring mass and the length of its side. If the maximum errors in the measurement of mass and length are 3% and 2% respectively, the maximum error in the measurement of the density is
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 7%
d. 9%
Ans: D

261. A box is dragged across a floor by a rope which makes an angle 600 with the horizontal. The tension in the rope is 200N, while
the box is dragged 20m. The work done is
a. 200 J
b. 3464 J
c. 2000 J
d. 346.4 J
Ans: C

262. A stone thrown vertically upwards from the top of a tower reaches the ground with speed 30 m/s. If the initial speed is 10 m/s, the height of the tower is
a. 10 m
b. 100 m
c. 40 m
d. 800 m
Ans: C

263. A body is released from a great height and falls freely towards the earth. Another body is released from the same height exactly one second later. Then the separation between two bodies, 2 seconds after the release of the second body is
a. 4.9 m
b. 9.8 m
c. 19.6 m
d. 24.5 m
Ans: D

264. A machine gun fires 20g bullet at the rate of 10 per second with a speed of 500 ms-1. If the mass of the gun is 10kg, the
force required to hold the gun in position is
a. 10 N
b. 100 N
c. 1000 N
d. 10 dynes
Ans: B

265. The dimensions of gravitational constant G are
a. [MLT-2]
b. [ML3T-2]
c. [M-1L3T-2]
d. [M-1LT-2]
Ans: C

266. A ball is thrown upwards and it returns to ground describing a parabolic path. Which of the following remains constant?
a. kinetic energy of the ball
b. speed of the ball
c. the horizontal component of velocity
d. the vertical component of momentum
Ans: C

267. In a circus a rider rides in circular track of radius R in the vertical plane. The minimum velocity at highest point of track will be
a. √(2gR)
b. 2gR
c. √(3gR)
d. √(gR)
Ans: D

268. A weight suspended from a spring oscillates up and down. Acceleration of the weight is zero at
a. the highest point of its path
b. the lowest point of its path
c. the middle point of its path
Ans: C

269. The product of 0.0052 × 60000 expressed in scientific notation is
a. 3.12 × 102
b. 3.12 × 10-2
c. 3.12 × 104
d. 3.12 × 10-5
Ans: A

270. When an explosive shell traveling in a parabolic path under the gravity explodes. The centre of mass of the fragments will continue to move
a. along a hyperbolic path
b. vertically upwards and then vertically downwards
c. along the original parabolic path
d. horizontally and then follows the parabolic path
Ans: C

271. The dimensions of couple is
a. [ML2T-2]
b. [MLT-2]
c. [ML1T-3]
d. [ML-2T-2]
Ans: A

272. Which among the following is the largest when the time of flight of a projectile is greatest?
a. horizontal rage
b. maximum height attained
c. angle projectile with vertical
d. both (a) and (b)
Ans: D

273. Dimensions of power are
a. [ML2T-3]
b. [M2LT-2]
c. [ML2T-1]
d. [MLT-2]
Ans: A

274. A sphere of mass 4 kg strikes a spring whose force constant is 100 Nm-1 with a speed of 2 m/s. The kinetic energy of the
sphere when the spring is compressed by 0.1 m is
a. 8 J
b. 7.5 J
c. 0.5 J
d. 8.5 J
Ans: B

275. A lorry and a car moving with the same kinetic energy are brought to rest by the application of brakes, which provides equal retarding forces. Then which of them will come to rest in a short distance
a. lorry
b. car
c. both will cover same distance
d. data inadequate
Ans: C

276. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the river capable of swimming at
10 m/min, in still water wants to swim across the river in the shortest time. He should swim in the direction
a. due north
b. 300 east of north
c. 300 west of north
d. 600 east of north
Ans: A

277. An inclined plane makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal. A solid sphere rolling down the plane from rest without slipping
has a linear acceleration equal to
a. g/3
b. 2g/3
c. 5g/7
d. 5g/14
Ans: D

278. The mass of a gas enclosed in a glass globe is increased from M to 1.5M while the temperature remains constant. If the initial pressure was 76 cm, calculate the final pressure.
a. 114 cm
b. 50.66 cm
c. 22.8 cm
d. 19 cm
Ans: A

279. A shell at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass. The two will be
a. at rest
b. move with different velocities in different directions
c. same velocity in opposite directions
d. same velocity in the same direction
Ans: C

280. Two vectors of equal magnitude acting at a point have resultant whose magnitude is equal to either of them. The angle between the two vectors must be
a. 00
b. 1500
c. 1200
d. 600
Ans: C

281. Two satellites A and B are orbiting around the earth in circular orbits of the same radius. The mass of A is 16 times that of B. The ratio of the period of revolution of B to that of A is
a. 1:16
b. 1:4
c. 1:2
d. 1:1
Ans: D

282. A metre stick is held vertically with one end on the floor and is then allowed to fall. The speed of the other end when it hits
the floor assuming that the end at floor does not slip and
g=9.8 m/s2
a. 3.2 m/s2
b. 5.4 m/s2
c. 7.6 m/s
d. 9.2 m/s
Ans: B

283. A spring balance shows a reading 10 N when a stone of 0.5 kg is suspended from it in a lift moving with a uniform acceleration. The reading shown with same retardation is
a. 10 N
b. 15 N
c. 0
d. none of these
Ans: A

284. Of the basic forces existing nature, the most weak force is
a. gravitational force
b. electromagnetic force
c. nuclear force
d. weak force
Ans: A

285. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit near a planet is independent of
a. the mass of the planet
b. the radius of the planet
c. the mass of the satellite
d. all the above
Ans: C

286. A block of ice is floating in a liquid of specific gravity 1.2 contained in a beaker. When the ice melts completely, the level of the liquid in the beaker
a. will not change at all
b. will go down
c. will rise
Ans: C

287. A box containing food supply is released from an airplane moving horizontally at a height of 1600 ft with a velocity of 400 ft/sec. The box will move horizontally just before striking against the earth through a distance
a. 400 ft
b. 4000 ft
c. 6400 ft
Ans: B

288. A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having the same mass and same diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the top of an inclined plane. Which will reach bottom first?
a. the solid cylinder
b. the hollow cylinder
c. both will reach the bottom together
d. the one having greater density
Ans: A

289. A tank of volume 60 m3 is at a height of 40m above the ground. If a pump of efficiency 60% can fill the tank in
15 minutes, the power consumed by the pump is
a. 43.55 KW
b. 43.55 W
c. 4355 W
d. 435 KW
Ans: A

290. A body of mass 1kg initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments of mass in the ratio 1:1:3. The two fragments of equal masses fly off perpendicular to each other with a velocity of 30 m/s. Velocity of heavier fragment is
a. 24.1 ms-1
b. 14.1 ms-1
c. 141 ms-1
d. 241 ms-1
Ans: B

291. The time period of satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R is
a. 4 T
b. T/4
c. 8T
d. T/8
Ans: C

292. On an application of a constant torque, a wheel initially at rest is turned through an angle of 64 radian in 8 seconds. Its angular acceleration is
a. 2 rad/s2
b. 3 rad/s2
c. 1 rad/s2
d. 4 rad/s2
Ans: A

293. In the given sets of unit which is not a unit of energy?
a. Watt hour
b. Newton-meter
c. KG ms-1
d. electron volt
Ans: C

294. The released length of a spring is 0.3m and the spring constant is 30N/m. If an external force F is used to stretch the spring from 0.1 m to 0.2 m the work done by this force is
a. 0.5 joule
b. 0.45 joule
c. 0.6 joule
d. 4.5 joule
Ans: B

295. A light body A and a heavy body B have equal linear momentum. Then kinetic energy A is
a. less than B
b. equal to B
c. zero
d. greater than B
Ans: D

296. The speedometer of a car measures
a. instantaneous speed
b. average speed
c. average acceleration
d. instantaneous acceleration
Ans: A

297. Two wires A and B of same material have their lengths in the ratio 1:2 and their diameters in the ratio of 2:1. If they are stretched with the same force, the ratio of the increase in length of A to that of B will be
a. 1:2
b. 4:1
c. 1:8
d. 1:4
Ans: C

298. A person is standing on a turn table holding a pair of heavy dumb bells, one in each hand with his arm outstretched. The table is rotating with an angular velocity ω. The person suddenly pushes the weight towards his chest. The angular velocity of the turn table will
a. become greater than ω
b. become less than ω
c. remain unchanged
d. become 2ω if the masses of the dumb bells are equal
Ans: A

299. A cube has numerically equal volume and surface area. The volume of such a cube is
a. 216 units
b. 1000 units
c. 2000 units
d. 3000 units
Ans: A

300. A particle P is moving in a circle of radius a with a uniform speed v. C is the centre of the circle and AB is the diameter.
The angular velocity of about A and C are in the ratio,
a. 1 : 1
b. 1 : 2
c. 2 : 1
d. 4 : 2
Ans: B

Paper : UPSC IAS Examination General Studies (INDIAN HISTORY) 2006 solved Question paper Prepare for Civil Services

1) Consider the following statements :-
1. The Charter Act 1853 abolished East India Company’s monopoly of Indian trade.
2. Under the Government of India Act 1858, the British Parliament abolished the East India Company altogether and undertook the responsibility of the ruling India directly
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: - (b)
Expl: - The Monopoly trading rights of East India Company was abolished by the
Charter of 1813.

2) When Raja Wodeyar founded the Kingdom of Mysore, who was the ruler of the
Vijayanagar Empire?
(a) Sadasiva
(b) Tirumala
(c) Ranga II
(d) Venkata II

Ans: - (d)
Expl: - Venkata II was the last great ruler of Aravindu dynasty with his Permission
Raja Wodeyar founded Mysore.

3) Between which of the following was the ancient town of Takshasila located?
(a) Indus and Jhelum
(b) Jhelum and Chenab
(c) Chenab and Rave
(d) Rave and Beas

Ans: - (a)
Expl: - Taxila was one of the ancient learning centres. Chandragupta Maurya studied
here. It was also a Buddhist site.

4) Withe reference to the invaders in ancient India, which one of the following is the
correct chronological order?
(a) Greeks - Sakas - Kushans
(b) Greeks - Kushans - Sakas
(c) Sakes - Greeks - Kushans
(d) Sakas - Kushans - Greeks

Ans: - (a)
Expl: - In Post Mauryan Peroids, there were three important foreign dynasties to
rule India. They were Greeks (200BC), Sakas(100 BC) and Kushanas(50AD).

5) Consider the following statements
1. The Ikshvaku rulers of Southern India were antagonistic towards Buddhism.
2. The Pala rulers of Eastern India were Patrons of Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: - (b)
Expl: - The Ikshvaku rulers Patronised Buddhism. They Renovated the famous Buddhist
chaityas of Nagarjuna Konda and Amaravati.

6) Which one of the following revolts was made famous by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
in his novel Anand Math
(a) Bhil uprising
(b) Rangpur and Dinapur uprising
(c) Bishnupur and Birbhum rebellion
(d) Sanyasi rebellion

Ans: - (d)
Expl: - ‘Bande Matram’ song of ‘Anand Math’ was based on Sanyasi rebellion.

7) In the year 1613, where was the English East India Company given permission to set
up a factory(trading post)?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Madras
(c) Masulipattam
(d) Surat

Ans: (d)
Expl: - The first settlement of English was Masulipattam(1611).

8. With reference to the revolt of the year 1857, who of the following was betrayed by a
friend; captured and put to death by the British?
(a) Nana Sahib
(b) Kunwar Singh
(c) Khan Bahadur Khan
(d) Tantia Tope

Ans: - (d)
Expl: - Tantia Tope , the famous Gurellia warfare expert was betrayed by the Zamindari
friend Mansingh.

9) Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held
in the year 1929 wherein a resolution was adopted to gain complete independence from the British?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Motilal Nehru

Ans: - (c)

10) “Lectures from Colombo to Almora” is based on the experience of which one of the following?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3, only
(c) 1 and 2, only
(d) 3 only

Ans: - (d)

11) Consider the following statements about Madam Bhikaji Cama :
(1) Madam cama unfurled the National Flag at the International
Socialist Conference in Paris in the year 1907.
(2) Madam cama served as private secretary to Dadabhai Naoroji.
(3) Madam cama was born to Parsi parents
(a) 1,2 and 3.
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 1 and 2 only.
(d) 3 only.

Ans: - (b)
Expl: - Madam Cama unfurled the National Flag at ‘Stuttgart’ in Germany.

12) Who was the Governor-General of India during the Sepoy Mutiny ?
(a) Lord Canning
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Hardinge
(d) Lord Lytton

Ans: - (a) Expl:
- Expl: - Lord Canning was the last Governor - General and first Viceroy of India.
His tenure : 1856 - 1862.

13) In Indian history, who was Abdul Hamid Lahori ?
(a) An important military commander during Akbar’s reign
(b) An official historian of the reign of Shah Jahan
(c) An important noble and confidant of Aurangzeb
(d) A chronicler and poet during the reign of Muhammad Shah

Ans: - (b)
Expl: - Lahori wrote ‘Badshah - Nama’ in Persian.

14) Bhakta Tukaram was a contemporary of which Mughal Emperor ?
(a) Babar
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Aurangzeb

Ans: - (c)
Expl: - Bhakta Tukaram was the contemporary of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir and
Prince Aurangazeb.

15)Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Afghan rulers to
the throne of Delhi ?
(a) Sikandar Shah - Ibrahim Lodi - Bahlol Khan Lodi
(b) Sikandar Shah - Bahlol Khan Lodi - Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Bahlol Khan Lodi - Sikandar Shah - Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Bahlol Khan Lodi - Ibrahim Lodi - Sikandar Shah

Ans: - (c)
Expl: - Founder : Bahlol Lodi; Last Ruler : Ibrahim Lodi.

16) Who among the following laid the foundation of Rashtrakuta Empire ?
(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Dantidurga
(c) Dhruva
(d) Krishna I

Ans: - (b)
Expl: - Founder of Rastrakuda dynasty. Fuedatory of Chalukyas of Bhadami.
Performed Hiranya Garpa ceremony.

17) Match List I ( Finding/Invention/Calculation ) with
List II ( Ancient Indian Scholar ) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
( Finding/Invention/ ( Ancient
Calculation ) Indian Scholar )

A. Time taken by the Earth 1. Aryabhatta
to orbit the Sun

B. Calculation of the value of 2. Bhaskaracharya
(’pi’)

C. Invention of the digit zero 3. Budhayana

D. The game of snakes and 4. Gyandev
ladders

Code : A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3

Ans: - (?)
Expl: - A) Time taken by the Earth to orbit the Sun - Bhaskara Charya
B) Calculation of the value of (pi) - Aryabhatta
C) Invention of the digit zero. It was first mentioned in Aryabattam. But,
it existed before
D) The game of Snakes and Ladders - Budhayama

18) Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
Prominent Indian Writer Language

(a) Raja Rao : Telugu
(b) Gobind Trimbuk Deshpande : Marathi
(c) Subramaniyam Bharati : Tamil
(d) Tara Shankar Joshi : Gujarati

Ans: - (a)
Expl: - Raja Rao wrote in English, He wrote KantaPuma. The serpent and the Rope,
The Cat and Shakespeare.

19) Match List I ( Place of Archaeological Monument ) with List II ( State ) and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I List II
( Place of Archaeological ( State )
Monument )

A. Sisupalgarh 1. Assam
B. Piprahwa 2. Manipur
C. Goalpara 3. Orissa
D. Bishnupur 4. Uttar Pradesh

Code :
A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 4 2 3

Ans: - (c)

20) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Vikramsila Monastery : Uttar Pradesh
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Himachal Pradesh
(c) Udhayagiri Caves : Maharashtra
(d) Amaravati : Andhra Pradesh Buddhist Stupa

Ans: - (d)
Expl: - (a) Vikramsila Monastery : Bengal
(b) Hemkund Gurudwara : Punjab
(c) Udhayagiri Caves : Orissa

21) The Allahabad Pillar inscription is associated with which one of the following ?
(a) Mahapadma Nanda
(b) Chandragupta maurya
(c) Ahoka
(d) Samudragupta

Ans: - (d)
Expl: -Allahabad Pillar inscription of Samudragupta was written by his court poet
and Commander-in-chief Harisena in Sanskrit.

22) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) State Recorganization Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu : Assam
(c) State of Bilaspur : Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966 : Gujarat becomes a state

Ans: - (d)
Expl: - The state of Gujarat was created in 1960.

23) The initial design and construction of whih massive temple took place during the
reign of Suryavarman II ?
(a)Sri Mariamman Temple
(b) Angkor Vat
(c) Batu Caves Temple
(d) Kumakhya Temple

Ans: - (b)
Expl: - Angkor Vat, a Vishnu temple was built by Suryavarman II.

24) Assertion (A) : Muhammad bin Tughluq Issued a new gold
coin which was called Dinar by Ibn Batutah.
Reason (R) : Muhammad bin Tughluq wanted to issue token
currency in gold coin to promote trade with
West Asian and North African countries

Ans: - (c)