Different Type of Questions as We do not know which question will come in exam so we have to look after every types of questions
Paper : Solved paper of UCO Bank P.O. Exam. held on January 29, 2006
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions. For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- September 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports. This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs.
However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.
1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector?
(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these
2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening
4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market
(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these
5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these
6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these
7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional
9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk
10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.
11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these
Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge
13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically
15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.
(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.
(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.
16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)
22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)
23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)
24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)
25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)
26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5)
27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5)
28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5)
29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)
30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5)
Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
31. When do you intend to return back home?
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required
32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required
33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required
34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required
35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required
36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required
37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required
38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required
39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required
40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required
Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.
41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through
42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing
43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want
44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance
45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited
47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively
48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past
49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular
50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn
ANSWERS:-
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)
Paper : ICICI Bank Placement Paper (English Language Ability, Phrases, Reasoning)
I. English Language Ability : A. Part I [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]Questions 1-7 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building __________
a. sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery.
b. sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully.
c. sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week.
d. sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked for ________
a. another pants
b. others pants
c. the others ones
d. another pair
3. The committee has met and _________
a. they have reached a decision
b. it has formulated themselves some opinions
c. its decision was reached at
d. it has reached a decision
4. Alfred Adams has not ________
a. lived loneliness in times previous
b. never before lived sole
c. ever lived alone before
d. before lived without the company of his friends
5. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class; ___________
a. he should study last night
b. he should have studied last night
c. he must have studied last night
d. he must had to study last night
6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because _________
a. he must to teach a class
b. he will be teaching a class
c. of he will teach a class
d. he will have teaching a class
7. Having been served lunch, __________
a. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
b. the committee members discussed the problem
c. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
d. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
II. Phrases: Part II [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
In question 8-14, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct.
8. The main office of the factory can be found in Maple Street in New York City .
a. the main
b. be found
c. in
d. in
9. Because there are less members present tonight than there were last night, we must wait until the next meeting to vote.
a. less
b. than
c. were
d. to vote
10. David is particularly fond of cooking, and he often cooks really delicious meals.
a. particularly
b. fond of
c. often cooks
d. really
11. The progress made in space travel for the early 1960s is remarkable.
a. progress
b. made
c. in space
d. for
12. Sandra has not rarely missed a play or concert since she was seventeen years old.
a. not rarely
b. a play
c. since
d. was seventeen years old
13. The governor has not decided how to deal with the new problems already.
a. The
b. has
c. how to deal with
d. already
14. There was a very interesting news on the radio this morning about the earthquake in Italy .
a. there was
b. a
c. on the
d. about
A.
III .Relationships: Part III [1 x 6 = 6 Marks]
In question 15-20, the given pair of words contains a specific relationship to each other. Select the best pair of choices which expresses the same relationship as the given.
15. PROCRASTINATOR : DELAY ::
a. flatterer : undermine
b. genius : creativity
c. tyrant : influence
d. general : salute
16. APIARY : BEE ::
a. mountain : skier
b. airport : flight
c. schedule : event
d. stable : horse
17. OVATION : APPLAUSE ::
a. grief : loss
b. rout : defeat
c. triumph : failure
d. pathway : ruin
18. DOLPHIN : FLIPPER ::
a. insect : antenna
b. burglar : mask
c. gull : wing
d. plane : radar
19. WATERTIGHT : MOISTURE ::
a. hermetic : air
b. combatant : strife
c. somnolent : boredom
d. ocean : shore
20. PLAYWRIGHT : SCRIPT ::
a. composer : score
b. physician : diagnosis
c. verse : poet
d. king : parliament
IV Opposite: Part IV [1 x 5 = 5 Marks]
In question 21-25, choose the best word, which is most opposite in the meaning to the given word.
21. LUCID
a. underlying
b. complex
c. luxurious
d. tight
22. LATITUDE
a. frenzy
b. attitude
c. altitude
d. restriction
23. GRATUITOUS
a. Noticeable
b. Useful
c. Needful
d. Original
24. MERITORIOUS
a. Simple
b. Inferior
c. Unrewarding
d. Young
25. VOUCHSAFE
a. steal
b. postpone
c. refuse
d. injure
Passage Comprehension [1 x 7 = 7 Marks]
Line 1. A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S. Geological Survey shows that strange animal behavior might help predict earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences within a ten-kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably.
Line 5. Scientists believe that animals can perceive environmental changes several hours or even days before the mishaps. Animals were notes as being restless for several weeks before a Tashkent , Uzbekistan , earthquake. An hour before the disaster, domestic animals refused to go indoors and dogs howled and barked furiously. In 1960, an earthquake struck Agadir in Morocco . Survivors recall that stray animals, including dogs, were seen streaming out of town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo nearSan Francisco , llamas would not eat the evening before a 1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all night.
Line 12. Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquakes has been noted for centuries. British Admiral Robert Fitzroy reported huge flocks of screaming seabirds over Conception, Chile , in 1835. An hour and half later, dogs were seen fleeing, and ten minutes later the town was destroyed. Similar stories of chickens running around in apparent states of panic, horses trembling and dogs barking incessantly were recorded throughout the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries by survivors of earthquake destruction in India, Yugoslavia, Peru, Mexico and the Unites States.
Line 18. In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal behavior, the Chinese predicted a devastating earthquake. Although hundreds of thousand of people were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of others people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level.
1. What prediction may be made by observing animal behavior?
a. An impending earthquake
b. The number of people who will die
c. The ten-kilometer radium from the epicenter
d. The fact that an earthquake has occurred.
2. The author implies that animals are aware of an impending earthquake because
a. Of their intelligence
b. They have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that human do not possess
c. They are generally closer to the epicenter than the human observers
d. They react to other animal behaviors
3. The word “evacuate” in line 20 closest in meaning to
a. remove
b. exile
c. Destroy
d. emaciate
4. All of the following statement are true EXCEPT
a. some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake
b. by observing animal behavior scientist perhaps can predict earthquakes
c. the Chines have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved may lives
d. only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception that allows them to predict earthquakes
5. In line 3 the word ” epicenter” is nearest in meaning to
a. stratosphere
b. Contour
c. Periphery
d. Core
6. The passage implies that if scientist can accurately predict earthquakes there will be
a. fewer animal going crazy
b. a lower death rate
c. fewer people evacuated
d. fewer environmental changes
7. In line 18 “devastating” means most nearly the same as
a. destructive
b. voracious
c. intense
d. forthcoming
Logical and Analytical Reasoning Ability:
A. Part I : Logical Reasoning Ability [1 x 9 = 9 Marks]
For Question 1-5 : Six actors – Bob, Carol, Dave. Ed, Frank, and Grace – are auditioning for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions for a part in an off-Broadway play. The auditions will take place over four consecutive days, starting on a Thursday. Each actor will have one audition. The days on which the different actors will audition must conform to the following conditions :
At least one audition will take place on any day.
No more than two auditions will take place on any day
No more than 3 auditions will take place on any two consecutive days
Bob’s audition must take place on Saturday
Carol’s audition must take place on the same day as another audition
Frank’s audition must take place on a day before grace’s audition
Dave’s audition must take place on a day after Ed’s audition
1. if only one audition takes place on Thursday, which actor could have that audition
a. Bob
b. Carol
c. Dave
d. Frank
e. Grace
2. If Bob’s and frank’s auditions are on the same day, which of the following must be true
a. Dave’s audition will take place on Thursday
b. Dave’s audition will take place on Friday
c. Grace’s audition will take place on Thursday
d. Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday
e. Ed’s audition will take place on Sunday
3. If the director decides to two hold the auditions on Thursday and two on Sunday, how many actors would be eligible to audition on Friday
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
4. If Ed and Grace have their auditions on the same day, which of the following must be true?
a. Ed’s audition will take place on Thursday
b. Frank’s audition will take place on Thursday
c. Carol’s audition will take place on Saturday
d. Grace’s audition will take place on Saturday
e. Carol’s audition will take place on Sunday
5. If Ed’s audition is on Saturday, which of the following actors cannot audition on the same day as any other actor?
a. Bob
b. Carol
c. Ed
d. Frank
e. Grace
For Question 6-9 : As part of their sports physicals, seven collegiate athletes – F, G, H, I, J, K & L – are being weighed. In announcing the results of the physical exams, the coach has given the following information:
None of the athletes is exactly the same weight as another athlete
K is heavier than L, but lighter than H
I is heavier than J
Both F and G are heavier than H.
6. Each of the following could be true EXCEPT
a. F is the heaviest
b. G is the heaviest
c. I is the heaviest
d. More than three athletes are heavier than K
e. More than three athletes are lighter than K
7. Which of the following, if true, would be sufficient to determine which athlete is the lightest?
a. I is the heaviest
b. I is lighter than K
c. K is heavier than J
d. J is heavier than K
e. Exactly five students are lighter than F
8. If J is heavier than F, how many different rankings, by weight, of the athletes are possible?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
9. If H is heavier than I, which of the following CANNOT be true?
a. I’s weight is equal to the average of F’s weight and G’s weight
b. I’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight
c. J’s weight is equal to the average of K’s weight and L’s weight
d. J is the second lightest
e. J is the lightest
PAPER: UPSC GENERAL STUDIES EXAM SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER
Q-1 Who among the following advocated scientific socialism ?(a) Robert Owen (b) Proudhon Pierre
(c) Karl Marx (d) saint simon Henri Claude
Q-2 During the mughal period, which one of the following traders were the first to come to India
(a) Portuguese (b) Dutch
(c) Danish (d) England
Q-3 Who among the following was appointed by Ashoka to administer justice in this empire
(a) Shramana (b) Uparika
(c) Rajuka (d) Kumaramayta
Q-4 Who was popularly known as Lokhitawadi ?
(a) G.C. Agarkar (b) M.G. Ranade
(c) R.G. Bhandarkar (d) G.H. Deshmukh
Q-5 Who among the following was the first economist to hold the office of secretary , Department of Economic affairs in the union finance ministry
(a) Dr. I.G. Patel (b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Rakesh Mohan (d) Dr. M.S. Ahluwalia
Q-6 What does the abbreviation ATR stand for /
(a) Action Taken Result (b) Actually True Report
(c) Action Taken Report (d) Action Taken Rejoinder
Q-7 Who among the following was the founder of the Nyay Darshan one of the six major schools of ancient Indian philosophy
(a) Patanjali (b) Panini
(c) Kapil (d) Gautam
Q-8 The decision to fom the Indian national army (Azad Hind Fauj ) was taken at
(a) Rangoon (b) Bangkok
(c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Tokyo
Q-9 Give the correct chronological sequence of the following
(a) Russion Revolution (b) American War of Independence
(c) Spanish Revolution (d) The French Revolution
Q-10 Which of the following states has the highest female literacy rate , according to 2001 Census ?
(a) Mizoram (b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Meghalaya
Q-11 Who among the following has been chosen the FDI Personality of the year 2007 in Asia
(a) P. Chidarmbaram (b) Kamal Nath
(c) Ratish Nayaar (d) Kaushik Rai
Q-12 Which of the following Fortune 500 indian companies has suffered loss for the first time in the first quarter of 2005-06 ?
(a) Indian Oil corporation (b) ONGC
(c) Reliance Industries (d) Bharat petroleum
Q-13 Who is the author of “Soul and structure of Governance in India ?
(a) V.K. Duggal (b) Jairam Ramesh
(c) Dr. I.G. Patel (d) Jagmohan
Q-14 Which one of the following processes is not related with chemical weathering
(a) Exfoliation (b) Carbonation
(c) Hydration (d) Oxidation
Q-15 Who invented polio vaccine (oral) ?
(a) Albert Sabin (b) Burkholder
(c) Louis Pasteur (d) Jonas salk
Q-16 Mist is caused by
(a) Dry ice (b) ice eat low temperature
(c) Water vapours at low temperature (d) Carbon-monoxide in solid form
Q-17 The first computer language development was
(a) COBOL (b) BASIC
(c) FORTRAN (d) PASCAL
Q-18 “Smasher” is associated with which of the following sports ?
(a) Boxing (b) Wrestling
(c) Football (d) Volleyball
Q-19 Who among the following is the chirman of the national commission on farmers ?
(a) Vijay Shankar (b) J.P. Batra
(c) Shanta Sinha (d) M.S. Swaminathan
Q-20 India ‘s first mobile court was inauguration in
(a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Q-21 The African union whose cooperation was sought by G-4 to expand UN security
Council has a strength
(a) 43 Members (b). 53 Members
(c) 63 Members (d) 34 Members
Q-22 The capital of the Pallava kings was
(a) Chennapattinam (b) Mahabalipuram
(c) Kanchipuram (d) Madurai
Q-23 “Tipu Sultan “ had his capital at
(a) Srirangapatnam (b) Mysore
(c) Banglore (d) Bhagyanagar
Q-24 “Dronacharya “ awards are given to
(a) Athletes (b) Sports
(c) Carnatic musicians (d) Sports persons
Q-25 “CTBT” is a term related to
(a) Nuclear Weapons (b) Taxes
(c) Space Research (d) Railway Goods
26. Who among the following would take over as the next president of FICCI?
(a) N. Srinivasan
(b) Vijay Kirloskar
(c) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
(d) Rahul Bajaj
27. How many cities will be covered under the government flagship project Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM)?
(a) 25
(b) 53
(c) 100
(d) 63
28. Match the following. Column-I represents companies and column-ii their business areas.
Column-I Column-ii
A. Marriott i. Advertising
B. Heineken ii. Technology
C. AMD iii. Hospitality
D. McCann iv Spirit
Choose the answer from the choices given below:
(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (b) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
29. Researchers have transformed ordinary human skin cells into batches of cells that look and act like embryonic stem cells, but without using cloning technology and without making embryos. These skin cells called
(a) iPS Cells (b) jPS Cells (c) ePS Cells (d) zPS Cells
30. This South India-based business tycoon has been in the news for his stake sale in coffee chain, Barista and telecom operator, Aircel. Identify him from the choices given below:
(a) Vijay Mallya (b) C Sivasankaran (c) A.C. Muthaiah (d) TPG Nambiar
31. Which one of the following is not a private equity company?
(a) Cerberus (b) Carlyle (c) Blackstone (d) ECCO
32. In which year Railway finances were separated from the general finances of the Central Government?
(a) 1920 (b) 1972 (c) 1923 (d) 1924
33. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL), a telecom public sector company was set up under the view Telecom Policy, 1999 in –
(a) Oct. 2000 (b) Dec. 2001 (c) Jan. 2002 (d) Oct. 2003
34. What is India’s percapita emission of green house gases (GHG)?
(a) 0.8 tonnes of CO2 (b) 1.0 tonnes of CO2 (c) 1.2 tonnes of CO2 (d) 1.5 tonnes of CO2
35. Consider the following:
I. Cannabis smokers are exposed to more toxic chemicals in each puff than those who smoke only tobacco.
II. Directly-inhaled cannabis smoke contained 20 times more ammonia than cigarette smoke, five
times more hydrogen cyanide and five times the concentration of nitrogen oxides, which affect circulation and immune system.
III. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons are linked to reproductive disorders and cancer; while at high levels, ammonia can cause asthma.
Select the code
(a) Only I an II are correct (b) Only I and II are correct
(c) Only II and III are correct (d) All are correctly.
36. Consider the following:
I. The National Food Security Mission aims at increasing production of rice by 10 million tones, wheat by 8 million tones in the next four years.
II. The Mission launched in 305 districts in 16 states. These districts had potential for high rise in Productivity.
III. The strategy was to bridge yield gaps by introducing modern technologies and improved agronomic practices.
Select the code:
(a) Only I and II are correct (b) Only I and III are correct
(c) Only II and III are correct (d) All are correct.
37. Which of the following are the causes of low productivity in Indian Agriculture?
(I) Uneconomic Holdings (II) Out model agricultural Techniques.
(III) Inadequate Irrigation facilities (IV) Lack of credit and marketing facilities
Select the code
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I, II, & III (d) None of the above
38. Nissan Motors have entered intio $500 million tie up with Ashok Leyland for 3 JVs. Nissan Motors already has a joint venture agreement with which of the following automobile companies?
(a) Mahindra & Mahindra (b) Tata Motors
(c) Bajaj Autos (d) TVS group
39. A new study provided the first evidence that fatter people may be more affected by expore to
(a) Sun Light (b) X-rays (c) γ - rays (d) Ozone
40. Which among the following owns/own equity stake in the country’s largest commodity exchange, Multi Commodity Exchange (MCX)?
(A) Merrill Lynch (B) Citigroup
(C) Financial Technologies (D) Fidelity
Choose the answer from the choices given below:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C) (c) (A), (B) and (C) (d) All of the above
41. Rainbow Revolution is related to which sector of the Economy?
(a) Small Scale Industries (b) Information Technology services
(C) Overall Development of Agriculture sector (d) Mining sector
42. Consider the following:
i. A study suggested that the sea cucumber could provide a potential new weapon to block transmission of the malaria parasite.
ii. the slug-like creature produces a protein, lectin, which impairs development of the parasite.
iii. The protein disrupted development of the parasites inside the insects stomach.
Select the code:
(a) Only I and II are correct (b) Only I and III are correct
(c) Only II and III are correct (d) All are correct.
43. Consider the following:
I. Former Finance Secretary Vijay L. Kelkar has been appointed Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission recently.
II. The Commission was constituted to make recommendations on the norms for distribution of the net tax proceeds between the Union and the States.
III. The recommendations will cover the period from April 1, 2010 to March 31, 2015. The commission is expected to make available its report by October
31, 2009.
IV. The Finance Commission is set up under Article 280 (1) of the Constitution every five years.
Select the code:
(a) Only I, II, and III are correct (b) only I, III, and IV are correct
(c) Only II, III, and IV are correct. (d) All are correct.
44. Which one of the following Indian companies owns stake in the Sakhaliu-I Oil and Gas project, off Russia’s far East Coast?
(a) GAIL (b) ONGC (c) IPCL (d) IOC
45. Which of the following companies belonging to the Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group (ADAG) is/are not listed on the stock exchange?
A. Reliance Communications
B. Reliance Power
C. Adlabs
Choose the answer from the choice given below:
(a) B and C (b) Only B (c) Only C (d) A and C
46. Which of the following missions was signed recently by London-based Inmarsat with industrialist to deliver high-bandwidth services to Europe, the Middle- East, Asia and Africa?
(a) Alphasat I – XL Mission (b) Alphasat IV – XL mission
(c) Alphasat VII – XL Mission (d) Alphasat IX – XL Mission.
47. Well-known hatchback car model, Fabia is slated to hit the Indian road in January 2008. The model is owned by
(a) Daimler (b) General Motors (c) Skoda Auto (d) Ford
48. Who was the chairman of Second National Commission on labour (NCL) set up in October 1999 by the Government of India?
(a) Dr. C. Rangrajan (b) Aid Hussain (c) Ravindra verma (d) Vijay Kelkar
49. Recent researches suggested that lack of sunlight my increase the risk of
(a) Lung Cancer (b) Uterus Cancer (c) Breast Cancer (d) Liver Cancer
50. Consider the following:
I. The Hebrew University at Jerusalem in Israel has introduced Malayalam as a subject.
II. Students are already learning Telugu and Tamil in the Hebrew University.
Select the code:
(a) Only I is correct (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Neither I nor II are correct (d) both are correct
51. The Green Revolution substantially increase the foodgrain production of India, who among the following mainly contributed to its occurrence?
I. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
II. Prof. Norman Barlough
III. K. Subramaniam
Select the Code:
(a) I & II (b) II & III (c) I, II & III (d) None of the above
52. Recently, this company has sold its captive BPO operations in India to Genpact. The company in the question is
(a) Citigroup (b) Barclays (c) BNP Paribas (d) General Electric
53. This apparel company was recently in the news for taking punitive measures against its
Indian suppliers who were accused of employing child labours. The company in the question is
(a) Benetton (b) Calvin Klein (c) ECCO (d) GAP
54. Consider the following:
I. Astronomers have reported that there are at least five planets circling a star known as 55 Caneri.
II. One of the first exoplanets discovered, in 1996, was at 55 Caneri.
III. The outermost and haviest Planet in the system, which is four times as massive as Jupiter,circles at a distance of 500 million miles, slightly farther than Jupiter in Solar System and takes 14 years to complete an orbit
Select the Code:
(a) Only I and II are correct (b) Only I and III are correct
(c) Only II and III are correct (d) All are correct
55. This Indian businessman has acquired 50 per cent stake in the US-based small aircraft manufacturer Epic Avia tion for $120 million. The person in the question is
(a) G.R. Gopinath (b) Naresh Goyal (c) Vijay Mallya (d) Subrato Roy
56. For the purpose of providing short term credits to farmers, the government of India introduced Kisan
Credit Card (KCC) Scheme in the year.
(a) 1996 – 97 (b) 1997 – 98 (c) 1998 – 99 (d) 1999 – 2000
57. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Kabini, the core of the much-delayed Kaveri engine, is undergoing high altitude testing at the Central Institute of Aviation Motors (CIAM) in Moscow.
(b) Kabini primarily makes up Kaveri’s high pressure compressor, high pressure turbine and high pressure combuster
(c) This is the second time that Kabini is taken to Moscow.
(d) All are correct.
58. The RBI is the apex body of Indian Financial System, which of the following functions are performed by the RBI?
I. Monitoring money supply in the Economy.
II. Issues currency other than coins and one Rupees note.
III. Functions as Bankers Bank.
IV. Works as banker to the Government.
Select the Code:
(a) I & lI are correct (b) I, II & III are correct
(c) II, III & IV are correct (d) All of above are correct
59. Consider the following:
I. Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Morigaon district of Assam.
II. Pobitora has the highest concentration of rhino population in the world
60. After becoming a part of Jet Airways, Sahara Airlines is now known as:
(a) Jet Sahara (b) Jet Economy (c) Sahara Jet (d) Jet Lite
61. The islands of Bali in Indonesia was visited by 189 countries to debate the commitment of nations on
reducing green house gas emissions, particularly CO2 after
(a) 2010 (b) 2011 (c) 2012 (d) 2013
ANSWER SHEET
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15c a c d a c d d b b b a d a a
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
c c d d b b c a b a
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (a)
34. (c) 35. (d) 36 (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (d) 41. (c)
42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a)
50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (d)
58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c) 61. (d) 62 .(c)
